MCQs > Finance & Management > Operations Management MCQs > General MCQs

General Operations Management MCQs

1. Which of the following would be relevant to the VOB (Voice of Business)?

2. A credit agency creates a credit report which is then used to create a loan agreement. Who is the supplier in the process of making a loan agreement?

3. True or false? A good SIPOC diagram should always focus on one supplier.

4. When creating a multi vari chart, each temporal occurrence should contain the measurements of at least _______ consecutive units.

5. A ________ indicates that a process event or measurement is likely to fall within that limit.

6. Is a barrel of crude oil an output or an input?

7. Which term describes how an organization expects to achieve its missions and goals?

8. True or false? Regression tests are functional tests.

9. True or false? The ordering of SIPOC categories does not matter.

10. True or false? Affinity diagrams are best created by a cross-functional team.

11. The international quality standard for for product design, manufacture, and distribution is known as:

12. Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 steps for an FMEA?

13. Process boundaries are important for _________.

14. (True or False): Key success factors are those activities that are key to achieving competitive advantage

15. (True or False): A system that permits the manufacturing of large quantities of identical goods using repetitive actions by people or machines is called mass production.

16. Which of the following is the SIPOC framework used for?

17. FMEA team leaders are in charge of:

18. Which of the following is a goal of the SIPOC framework?

19. What is the target RPN for FMEAs?

20. A problem statement is a _________.

21. True or false? A processes can have the same DPU, but very different DPO.

22. True or False? The failure modes with the highest RPNs should be attended to first.

23. Which of the following would be an incorrectly labeled output?

24. True or false? Suppliers can come from internal entities.

25. What is the correct order of the main phases in the product life cycle?

26. SIPOC represents the five key elements of a ______ map.

27. A firm can effectively use its operations function to yield competitive advantage through all of the following, EXCEPT:

28. True or false? The gross margin often reflects the value created during the process.

29. (True or False): It is easier to measure productivity for an operation that provides services than for one that produces goods since there is no material used in services.

30. What is the commonly accepted variable for Inputs?

31. What is another name for a "Fishbone Diagram"?

32. Operations management includes all of these activities, EXCEPT:

33. Which of the following best describes a bar chart that depicts the frequencies of numerical or measurement data?

34. What is the planning method used to show the tasks associated with a project, the people in charge of completing the tasks and the timelines?

35. What is the least likely decision made by an Operations Manager?

36. True of false? You can always use the same standard deviation when calculating a sigma score, regardless of time frame.

37. A full factorial experiment has ______ factor(s) with _______ level(s) each.

38. Which of the following would be an observational study?

39. Which of the following is NOT used when determining RPN?

40. Which of the following is NOT a DMAIC term?

41. ________ refers to the consequences of a failure if it should occur.

42. Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high volume, low variety?

43. When designing an experiment, which category would inputs be included in?

44. Which of the following best describes 'failure modes'?

45. How do you calculate DPU (defects per unit)?

46. A high sigma score indicates _____ defects.

47. Within the SIPOC framework, an Iphone is an example of a/an _______.

48. DFMEA stands for _______.

49. Which of the following options list the 3 factors used to determine the relative risk of a failure?

50. The costs incurred when a customer returns a defective product are best described as a _____ Cost-of-poor-quality (COPQ).

51. A company that extracts and refines oil uses a/an ______ process.

52. Which of the following formulas best shows how to obtain a risk priority number (RPN)?

53. A tester creates an experiment that consistently produces the same result. This is an example of _______.

54. (True or False): Key success factors and core competencies are synonyms

55. True or false? Variables that are CTQ must also be CTC.

56. Statistics are an important part of the analysis phase. What is the largest value minus the smallest value?

57. In order to analyze the significance of a population sample, you must calculate __________.

58. An operations manager would be responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT:

59. What does FMEA stand for?

60. Which element of SIPOC would a RACI chart relate to?

61. A customer writes an email to customer support. A representative receives the email, finds the relevant information, and sends a response email back to the customer. How should the customer be categorized within SIPOC?

62. Which of the following is NOT a common categorization in Value Add Analysis?

63. True or false? Outputs exclusively refer to products or services delivered to external customers.

64. Which of the following is NOT an example of non-functional testing?

65. What is the commonly accepted variable for Outputs?

66. The proportion of units that go through a process for the first time without defect is called _______.

67. SIPOC is a tool used within the greater ______ process.

68. Which of the following would be best used to compare statistical models?

69. True or False? Fishbone charts are used to plot measurements taken over a specific time period.

70. The latency period is the _________.

71. What does poka-yoke refer to?

72. The frequency in which failure is occurring is referred to as:

73. What is the approach that tries to match the output of manufacturing with market demand, in order to minimize inventories?

74. Six Sigma seeks to ensure a quality level of ____ defects per million opportunities.

75. Which of the following would be help indicate errors when curve-fitting?

76. True or False? An organizations strategy is its purpose or rationale for an organizations existence

77. Which of the following is NOT a SIPOC category?

78. What should be the first step of the experiment design process?

79. What type of process is Operations Management considered?

80. Extracting raw materials is an example of a/an ________ process.

81. Digging for gold would be an example of a/an ______ process.

82. When building a SIPOC diagram, what should you first define?

83. A shipment tracking ID is an example of a/an _______.

84. Which of the following is least likely to be a Cost Leadership competitive advantage?

85. When building a SIPOC diagram you should start with ______.

86. (True or False): SWOT analysis is a method of determining external strengths and weaknesses and internal opportunities and threats

87. Fishbone diagrams are used for ______ identification.

88. As a general rule of thumb, how many high-level steps should be included in the process description?

89. Which of the following terms BEST describes the measures that have already been achieved/recorded by a person or company that can be used to set initial goals as defined by Six Sigma.

90. Which of the following would non-functional testing be used for?

91. Which of these international operations strategies involves a focus on high cost reductions and low local responsiveness?

92. Which of the following would be the best first step towards a successful FMEA?

93. What is the term used to describe the RPN that's determined after reevaluating the severity, occurrence, and detection rankings?

94. A person's height is an example of _______ data, whereas number of students in a class is an example of ______ data.

95. Which of the following materials process operation type is associated with the highest volume and lowest variety?

96. What is licensing of product manufacturing of a product to other firms?

97. A jammed manufacturing tool is an example of ______.

98. There is a 50% chance that a bike will be produced with a defect. This probability is called the __________.

99. In a normal distribution, 68% of the data will occur within:

100. What is the purpose of FMEA?

101. What variable is used to describe a sigma score?

102. Which of the following would NOT be defined as a process input?

103. Which phase of DMAIC is SIPOC often used in?

104. Cutting diamonds for commercial use would be an example of ________ processing.

105. Which of the following costs would NOT be included in a resultant Cost-of-poor-quality (COPQ)?

106. How many failure modes can exist at one time with FMEA?

107. True or false? Benchmarking always focuses on companies within the same industry.

108. Which of the following would not be a typical function of production management?

109. _______ FMEA is used to make existing transactional and operational processes better by understanding how external factors (people, materials, environment, etc.) can cause problems.

110. What is the importance of "level setting"?

111. Which of the following would be the best last step towards a successful FMEA?

112. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used SIPOC software tool?

113. Which of the following would be the best example of poka-yoke?

114. _______ FMEA is used to analyze a new process, product, or service design before manufacturing to learn how it could fail when it's released.

115. The following activities are a direct responsibility of operations management, EXCEPT:

116. An event with a C probability is predicted to fail ______.

117. Which graph would best measure multiple variation distributions?

118. Which stage of DMAIC is data auditing most relevant?

119. In Measurement System Analysis, under ___ % is acceptable.

120. What is the primary metric used in baseline measurement?

121. Which of the following could you use to compare a CTQ (critical to quality) to a CTC (critical to customer)?

122. Attribute data is ______.

123. What should be the last SIPOC category addressed?

124. Which of the following would be most critical to quality (CTQ)?

125. (True or False): The multidomestic OM strategy maximizes local responsiveness while achieving a significant cost advantage

126. True or false? Attribute data is most useful during the analysis phase.

127. Which one would be benefits of computer modeling in this scenario?

128. Which one is NOT an element in the 'Waterfall Model'?

129. Which of the following statements is/are true?

130. The phenomenon where, in the log run, unit costs increase as the production volume increases is known as:

131. Which one refers to an approach to reducing production costs developed by Toyota?

132. What does the term 'kaizen' refer to?

133. Which of the following statements is/are true?

134. Which element of 'marketing mix' relates to distribution?

135. The extent to which a company owns its suppliers and its buyers is known as:

136. Which statements is true?

137. Under' Principles of Organization', what is meant by the expression 'Unity of Control'?

138. Process design engineer uses to ensure a product meets the user's specifications?

139. Which one is NOT characteristic of a primary industry?

140. Which one is NOT a benefit of monitoring performance?

141. Which initiative would a company expect to reduce its defect rate?

142. Comparing performance with high-performing competitors is known as:

143. A 'Just-In-Time' approach to production involves ..... .

144. Which one best characterization of a decentralized organization?

145. Which one is not part of the acronym 'SMART'?

146. Which one is an example of a secondary industry?

147. Which of the following statements is/are true?

148. Which of the following statements is/are true?

149. The term 'cell production' refers to a situation in which:

150. A situation where there is one intermediary organization between the manufacturer and the consumer is known as:

151. Which of the following statements is/are true?

152. Who developed the fourteen key principles for transforming business effectiveness?

153. Potential problems associated with benchmarking?

154. Which one is a standard indicating a company's approach to 'quality'?

155. To what does the term 'purchasing economies of scale' refer?

156. Which one is NOT part of the role of an industrial engineer?

157. Which product would be most suited to transportation by an airplane?

158. Which one would NOT be addressed as part of a 'Quality' improvement initiative?

159. Which activity may NOT be outsourced?

160. Which one is NOT a stage in the product life cycle?

161. Which one is a statistical measure of the ability of a process to deliver within the specification limits?

162. Which concepts developed by Dr Eliyahu Goldratt asserts that at any given time, there will be at least one factor hindering an organization's performance?

163. Identify which statements is true?

164. Which of the following statements is/are true?

165. Which one of the Maslow's hierarchy of needs would primarily be addressed by introducing 'team-based management'?

166. Which one is an example of 'job' production?

167. Alternative term for the 'Scalar Principle'?

168. Which of the following statements is/are true?

169. Which factors must be balanced against 'schedule' to assess the effectiveness of a process?

170. Which of the following statements is/are true?

171. Benefits of introducing the 'kaizen' techniques?

172. What is the correct expansion of the acronym KPI?

173. What will its capacity utilization be after a 10% productivity increase?

174. Which are the disadvantages of gaining a quality award?

175. Which statements is correct?

176. Which situation would NOT cause 'diseconomies of scale'?

177. What is meant by the term 'industrial design'?

178. Which statements is NOT true?

179. Why would a design engineer perform 'structural analysis'?

180. Which term refers to the comprehensive management of the flow of goods from the producer to the consumer?

181. Which of the following will be considered 'opportunity costs'?

182. Which one is typically qualitative measures?

183. A factory currently produces 1000 units at a unit cost of $3. If doubling output will decrease production costs by 20%, how much would it cost to produce 2000 units then?

184. Which distribution method would be best suited to reach the customers who are unable to visit shops and want a broad range of products?

185. Which is a variety of a 'prototype'?

186. Which term relates to ensuring that different elements of product development are undertaken at the same time rather than consecutively?

187. Which method would be used for the production of gas?

188. A company with 12 employees used to produce 600 units per week. Now with 16 employees, it produces 960 units per week. How much has each employee's productivity increased?

189. Which one is NOT a reason for selling products via wholesalers?

190. Which of the following statements is/are true?

191. A 'balanced ..... ' is a tool for evaluating organisational performance across the full range of factors.

192. Which one is an 'output'-related measure?

193. Which statement is true?

194. Reducing the number of levels within an organization's hierarchy known as?

195. Which one describes the term 'time-based management'?

196. Which course of action would NOT be a sensible response where capacity is being under-utilized due to lack of demand for products?

197. Which statement is true?

198. Which two are used to calculate an 'efficiency ratio'?

199. Which one is NOT a feature of an effective organizational structure?

200. Which one is NOT a benefit of 'hub and spoke' distribution?

201. Reasons for undertaking 'reverse engineering'?

202. Which one is NOT generally associated with a 'Just-In-Time' approach to production?

203. Which one is NOT a stage in the 'Business Process Re-engineering Cycle'?

204. What does the term 'distribution chain' refer to?

205. Some organizations monitor the 'societal effects' of their activities. What type of measure is it?

206. Sensible response/sensible response to a situation where a company finds that demand for its product is outstripping supply?

207. _____ costs do not change as output is increased or decreased.

208. A true statement about diversity is that diversity _____.

209. The typical layout of facilities in a hospital would be an example of a ____ layout.

210. When writing a routine business request, you should ________.

211. Two main communication challenges of using company internet systems are legal issues and ________.

212. When it comes to risk of security threats and losses, ___________.

213. When you print ____, the presentation is printed with one or more slides on each piece of paper.

214. A ____ operation searches data in a table and retrieves records based on certain criteria.

215. A _____ is a logical grouping of related fields.

216. A(n) ____ is a promise to reward and compensate a customer if a service upset occurs.

217. The determination of specific job tasks and responsibilities is called ____.

218. Buck passing is seen when an employee ________.

219. The evaluation process ideally begins with _____.

220. The idea that a good product will sell itself is associated with the __________ era of marketing.

221. The lowest degree of processing occurs in _____.

222. The satisfaction-guaranteed concept is typically successful when marketing ________.

223. The use of simulations has been limited by their _____.

224. There are two general types of franchises: product-distribution and __________ franchises.

225. To _____ an activity means to shorten the time it will take.

226. Transaction-processing systems _____.

227. When bargaining power of buyers is ________, the industry is ________ attractive.

228. When more efficient workers earn higher wages, this is known as a _____ pay structure.

229. When the backup stock is large, _____.

230. With virtual organizations, _____.

231. Return on investment is an example of a(n) ________ ratio.

232. The aim of customer relationship management is to produce high customer ________.

233. The efficiency of a cpu is measured by ____________.

234. The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________.

235. In _____, computers can direct machinery to adapt to different versions of similar operations.

236. Managers should _______ in order to empower them, to lead for competence.

237. ____ forecasts are needed to plan for facility expansion.

238. All of the following are sources of leader power except ________.

239. In the delphi method of judgmental forecasting, _____.

240. Generally, consumer goods are either ________ or ________.

241. A global village can be best characterized as a business climate in which there are ________.

242. _____ are called the action steps by which an organization intends to attain its strategic goals.

243. _____ are directives issued solely by the president, without requiring congressional approval.

244. The basic trade-off in logistics is between ________ and ________?

245. Frito-lay is to ________ focus as harley davidson is to ________ focus.

246. ____ are a type of operational plan

247. ________ planning dominates managers' planning efforts at lower levels of the organization.

248. Promotion of weekly discount airfares by an airline would be an example of ____.

249. A ____ layout consists of a functional grouping of equipment or activities that do similar work.

250. A leader is defined as someone who ________.

251. _____ is market segmentation on the basis of personality, motives, lifestyles, and geodemographics.

252. _____ is the difference between a desired state and an actual state.

253. _____ measure dexterity, hand-eye coordination, and arm-hand steadiness.

254. ________ are an intangible benefit of information systems.

255. ________ protect databases and other organizational data.

256. __________ and __________ are two related aspects of the self-concept.

257. ___________ executes the business strategy.

258. ___________ is generally used to facilitate an organization strategy that emphasizes low cost.

259. A _____ is a characterization of product growth, maturity, and decline over time.

260. A conveyance __________ signals parts movement.

261. A corporate strategy focuses primarily on ________.

262. A manager who is a transactional leader ________.

263. A manager who values relationships among co-workers has a ________ leadership style.

264. A snack vending machine located in a university building creates both __________ utility.

265. A strong culture should reduce employee turnover because it results in ________.

266. A(n) ________ provides most or all of the services needed to mount an advertising campaign.

267. According to the hot stove rule, disciplinary action should ________.

268. Adults 18–41 years old represent mcdonald's ________ for the campaign.

269. An innovation stream moves from one technology cycle to another through the process of ____.

270. An organization’s vision is its long-term goal describing _____.

271. Dell computers and subway sandwiches are examples of ____ goods.

272. Demand that incorporates uncertainty is called ____.

273. Demand that is stable over time is called ____.

274. Demand that varies over time is called ____.

275. Eli whitney, in the ________, provided the foundations for ________ in operations management.

276. The _________ of erp makes it valuable as a strategic planning tool.

277. The two divisions that make up most finance departments are ________.

278. When a manager asks an employee to complete a task, he or she is using ________ communication.

279. A(n) ____ performs entire jobs rather than specialized, assembly line work.

280. Valueminus−total cost = ________.

281. A firm's sales process ________.

282. Based on your reading, information systems help businesses compete ________.

283. __________ is usually the best method for delivering your presentation.

284. _______ are specific behaviors used to deal with a stressful situation.

285. Of the following, ________ would serve as a primary reinforcer for most people

286. _____ are at the top of the organization and get more specific as they move toward

287. _____ is independent action to improve relations with competitors.

288. ______ is(are) the activity(ies) organizations perform in order to reach their business goals.

289. ________ are powerful forms of social control that influence group and member behavior.

290. ________ refers to anything that occurs as part of a daily business of which a record must be kept.

291. A hierarchy of authority is ____.

292. A lean-systems method of asking questions about a process is the __________ approach.

293. A message has high skim value when it __________.

294. A nation's culture is ________.

295. According to the principle of unity of command, ________.

296. All of the following are included in a task analysis record form except ________.

297. All of the following elements are part of an organization's vision except __________.

298. Formal information channels are characterized by ________.

299. In a high-performance work system, task design makes jobs _____.

300. In the context of a firm's economic resources, cash, inventory, and equipment represent its _____.

301. In the ethical decision-making framework, brainstorming for alternatives takes place _______.

302. In today's decentralized business world, ________ the most important strategic decisions.

303. Make your life easier at tax time by keeping ________.

304. Netflix's recommendation feature attempts to close the _____ gap.

305. The process of taking a new idea and putting it into practice is called __________.

306. _______________ is the purchased cost of goods from outside suppliers.

307. Integration and coordination can be accomplished through rules, values, and _____.

308. _____ can be produced independently of the consumer and then stored and shipped.

309. A risk avoider would want ______ safety stock.

310. Computer-integrated manufacturing integrates ______________ with manufacturing.

311. Combining the order_line and orders tables will ____.

312. Demand forecast accuracy is important because overestimating demand leads to ________.

313. Holding high levels of inventory result in ____ inventory carrying costs and ____ stockout costs.

314. An online dating service that charges members makes money primarily through using a(n) ________.

315. In schoenberg?s pierrot lunaire, pierrot is a(n) _____.

316. Maslow argued that once a need is substantially satisfied, ________.

317. Norming is a stage of group development that occurs when ________.

318. Smaller firms are most likely to reorganize into ________ during their internationalization.

319. The _____________ shows process structures based on output volume and product variety.

320. _____ is best described as anticipating and preparing for an uncertain future.

321. ________ is a method for addressing, creating, updating, or querying relational databases.

322. ________ is what distinguishes an entrepreneurial venture.

323. ________ refers to inconsistencies between the emotions people feel and the emotions they project.

324. ____is the process of influencing others to achieve group or organizational goals.

325. A ____ item is something that is purchased without much thought before the purchase.

326. According to herzberg, _____ is an example of a hygiene factor.

327. An attractive product idea must be developed into a ________.

328. Companies can achieve growth mainly by ____.

329. Critics of globalization say that global consumer-goods companies destroy ________.

330. Cross-training, job rotations, and the like results in ____ within the organization.

331. Demographic variables are so frequently used in market segmentation because they ________.

332. During the dreaming step of appreciative inquiry, participants ________.

333. Events such as _______________ can be disruptive to global supply chains.

334. First-line managers are typically those who ________.

335. Hidden aspects of an organization that ob provides insight into include ________.

336. Jit makes quality less expensive because __________.

337. In equity theory, individuals assess the ________.

338. Mbo emphasizes goals that are ________.

339. In the past, __________ dominated supply chains.

340. The disaster recovery team will __________ the disaster recovery planning team.

341. A top-down analysis of a firm's prospects starts with an analysis of the ____.

342. All of the following except ________ can promote ethical choices across cultures.

343. A successful tqm program incorporates all of the following except __________.

344. Iso 9000 currently requires _____ of a certified organization.

345. Job shops tend to be __________ while continuous processes tend to be __________.

346. If demand is not uniform and constant, the stockout risks can be controlled by __________.

347. Warby parker can offer cheaper glasses than their competition because they _______.

348. Two of the primary challenges facing managers today are ____.

349. _____, in e-commerce, means all market participants can trade at the same price.

350. An operations task performed at hard rock caf is __________.

351. An organization's culture reflects the __________ that guide(s) its employees' behavior.

352. With ____ departmentalization, most employees report to two bosses.

353. With target costing, marketers first ________ and then ________.

354. Your internet service provider serves all of the following functions except _________.

355. The eeoc was initially established to investigate complaints about ________.

356. The quick service restaurant (qsr) market is considered a(n)_______.

357. The sales message varies little from customer to customer in a(n) _____.

358. ________ integrates data from various operational systems.

359. ________ is one way to achieve unfreezing of an organization's status quo.

360. In the context of sequencing, the _____ minimizes the average lateness of a set of jobs.

361. The decision to outsource opens the firm up to certain risks, among them _________ and ________.

362. _______ variation is a variation whose cause can be identified.

363. ________ expresses the error as a percent of the actual values.

364. Bona fide occupational qualifications would be most likely included in a(n) ____.

365. Charismatic leaders can be most distinguished by their __________ skills.

366. In a two-resource sequencing problem, _____.

367. The _______________ is the "wrap-up" phase of project management.

368. Value stream mapping analysts start from ________ and work _______ to draw the map by hand.

369. High customer contact systems would most commonly be found in ____.

370. When ricky sells his used desk for $50, money is a _____.

371. The u.s. economy is now dominated by the _________ sector.

372. An organizations ________________________________________ assembles its disaster recovery team.

373. Between 1949 and 1964, the unemployment rate of blacks had come to _________ of whites.

374. Overcharging medicare for care and services provided to patients is an example of ______ behavior

375. In the accompanying figure, the arrow number 2 indicates the form is displayed in the ____ view.

376. In the context of forecasting errors, _____ eliminates the measurement scale factor.

377. In the lean systems approach, as a system improves, it should have ____________ inventory on hand.

More Resources

Operations Management Skill Assessment

Operations Management PDF

Related MCQs

Operations Research

Payroll

People Management

PMP - Project Management

Project Management