Criminal Evidence MCQ Questions Answers

1. Some evidence exists suggesting that rewards may __________ intrinsic motivation.

2. All of the following except _____ require periodically re-earning the added pay.

3. Is wade-Gilbert rule the suspect has a constitutional right to a lawyer at all?

4. _____ is known as identifications that influence the result by highlighting one of the participants.

5. _____ is defined as a victim or eyewitness confronts all the participants in the lineup at the same time.

6. _____ is a victim or eyewitness is confronted with a single suspect.

7. Is sequential presentation presentation of individuals in a lineup one after another?

8. _____ is known as witness identification of the perpetrator of a crime through the use of photographs.

9. _____ is defined as identification of the perpetrator of a crime, who is not present, by viewing photographs.

10. _____ is a witness identifies the perpetrator of a criminal act in court.

11. Is foils individuals in a lineup who are not suspects?

12. _____ is known as individuals in a lineup who are not suspects.

13. _____ is defined as identification of a suspect by a victim or witness.

14. _____ is individuals in a lineup who are not suspects.

15. Is critical stages of a criminal proceeding procedures between arraignment and trial at which a failure to provide the defendant a lawyer may prevent the defendant from obtaining a fair trial?

16. _____ is known as identification of an individual who is physically present.

17. _____ is defined as physical presentation of a suspect to a witness or victim.

18. _____ is the standard that the prosecution must satisfy to demonstrate that a suspect waived his or her Miranda rights in an informed and free fashion.

19. Is statements an oral or written declaration to the police that may constitute an assertion of innocence?

20. _____ is known as a special court that was established by the English king in the fifteenth century and that was charged with prosecuting and punishing political and religious dissidents.

21. _____ is defined as a defendant may not be interrogated by the police following an indictment absent the presence of counsel unless the suspect waives his or her right to representation.

22. _____ is police may question an individual who has invoked his or her right to silence about a crime different in time, nature, and place after waiting a significant period of time and giving a fresh set of Miranda warnings.

23. Is question first and warn later police may question an individual without reading Miranda, obtain a confession, and then read the Miranda rights and reinterrogate the suspect. The confession is admissible so long as the Miranda warnings function effectively to advice suspects of their rights?

24. _____ is known as police may ask questions reasonably prompted by a reasonable concern with public safety without first advising a suspect of his or her Miranda rights.

25. _____ is evidence that is non-communicative in character.

26. Is miranda warnings the police are required to inform individuals of the right to remain silent, that anything they say may be used against them, and of the right to an attorney, retained or appointed?

27. _____ is known as confessions that result from coercion, drugs, or a mental disability rather than free will.

28. _____ is defined as words or actions on the part of the police that are likely to lead a suspect to incriminate himself or herself.

29. _____ is the test for waiving a prior invocation of counsel under Miranda.

30. Is incommunicado interrogation law enforcement questioning of individuals in the isolation of a police station?

31. _____ is known as the waiver of a right as indicated by an individual’s words and actions and the totality of the circumstances.

32. _____ is defined as words or actions on the part of the police that the police should know are reasonably likely to lead a defendant to incriminate himself or herself.

33. _____ is confessions may not be obtained through psychological or physical coercion that overcomes the will of the individual to resist.

34. Is false confession an innocent individual confesses to a crime that he or she did not commit?

35. _____ is known as an affirmative relinquishment of a right.

36. _____ is defined as a direct question.

37. _____ is questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his or her freedom of action in a significant way.

38. Is confessions an individual admits the commission of a crime in response to police questions?

39. _____ is known as an individual who invokes right to counsel may be interrogated after fourteen days.

40. _____ is defined as consent to a search provided by an individual with common authority who exercises mutual use of property and has joint access or control for most purposes.

41. _____ is searches that do not serve the normal needs of law enforcement.

42. Is search warrant authorization from a magistrate to search and seize specified objects?

43. _____ is known as a search that is authorized by the fact of an arrest; it includes a search of the person arrested and the area within his or her immediate control.

44. _____ is defined as an arrest that is motivated by the intent to investigate law violations for which no probable cause or event articulable suspicion exists.

45. _____ is most courts approve of these searches on the grounds that the police by knocking on an individual’s door are doing no more than any citizen might do and are not violating a resident’s expectation of privacy.

46. Is knock and announce refers to a requirement that police knock and announce their presence when serving a search warrant?

47. _____ is known as an administrative procedure recording the possessions of an arrestee and the content of impounded automobiles.

48. _____ is defined as the area within a suspect’s immediate control that may be searched incident to an arrest.

49. _____ is a search incident to an arrest must take place immediately before, at the same time as, or immediately after the arrest.

50. Is consent search a search based on an individual’s waiver of his or her Fourth Amendment rights?

51. _____ is known as a clear and unambiguous rule established by judicial precedent.

52. _____ is defined as a clear and unambiguous rule established by judicial precedent.

53. _____ is the exception to the requirement that police obtain a warrant before conducting a search; a warrant is not required for an automobile.

54. Is administrative inspections government agencies conduct searches to determine whether businesses, factories, apartments, and homes are conforming to a broad range of regulations?

55. _____ is known as facts and circumstances within officers’ knowledge, and of which they have reasonable trustworthy information, that would warrant a person of reasonable caution to believe that an offense has been or is being committed.

56. _____ is defined as an individual arrested for a misdemeanor.

57. _____ is an informant may not be required to testify.

58. Is fleeing-felon rule common law doctrine that police may use deadly force to apprehend a suspected felon who is fleeing the police?

59. _____ is known as emergency circumstances justifying warrantless entry into the home.

60. _____ is defined as warrantless entry by the police into the home to provide assistance to the individual.

61. _____ is notice to an individual to appear for trial at a later date.

62. Is arrest warrant a judicial finding that there is probable cause to attack an individual?

63. _____ is known as police custody of an individual based on probable cause that he or she committed a crime.

64. _____ is defined as an affidavit must detail the informant’s credibility and basis of knowledge.

65. _____ is a sworn statement setting forth facts constituting probable cause that an individual has committed a criminal offense.

66. Is affiant an individual who swears to a warrant?

67. _____ is known as state laws that authorize the police to require a citizen subjected to a stop and frisk to prevent identification.

68. _____ is defined as the police may stop an individual in those instances in which they have a reasonable basis to believe that crime may be afoot. The police may conduct a frisk for weapons where the individual fails to dispel the officer’s fear that the individual is armed and presently dangerous.

69. _____ is stopping or arresting individuals because of their race, ethnicity, religion, or other characteristic rather than because of their activity.

70. Is plain-feel doctrine an exception to the Fourth Amendment warrant requirement that allows a police officer to seize an item without a search warrant when (1) the officer is lawfully positioned and (2) there is probable cause to seize the objects?

71. _____ is known as an individual who provides information about criminal authority to law enforcement.

72. _____ is defined as a profile developed based on experience that isolates characteristics of a drug trafficker.

73. _____ is the facts of each situation are evaluated to determine whether a police officer’s conduct meets the applicable legal standard. An example is the standard for a reasonable suspicion stop in accordance with Terry v. Ohio.

74. Is articulable suspicion a police officer in justifying an intrusion must present specific and articulable facts that together with rational inferences drawn from those facts reasonably suggest that an individual has committed a crime or is about to commit a crime?

75. _____ is known as information from an unidentified informant.

76. _____ is defined as documents used by eighteenth-century American colonial authorities to compel individuals to assist in carrying out a search.

77. _____ is an approach to Fourth Amendment protection that assumes such protection is limited to physical intrusions of the home, comparable to property rights approach.

78. Is seizure a reasonable person would not believe himself or herself to be free to leave or to otherwise terminate the encounter?

79. _____ is known as governmental intrusion on an individual’s expectation of privacy.

80. _____ is defined as an approach to Fourth Amendment protection that assumes such protection is limited to physical intrusions of the home, comparable to trespassory approach.

81. _____ is facts and circumstances within officers’ knowledge, and of which they have reasonable trustworthy information, that would warrant a person of reasonable caution to believe that an offense has been or is being committed.

82. Is plain view an exception to the Fourth Amendment warrant requirement that allows a police officer to seize an item without a search warrant when (1) the officer is lawfully positioned and (2) there is probable cause to seize the object?

83. _____ is known as an act in which a law enforcement officer takes hold of a suspect with the intent to prevent the individual from leaving.

84. _____ is defined as areas distant from the home that lack an expectation of privacy.

85. _____ is warrants allowing colonial authorities to search anytime and anywhere.

86. Is expectation of privacy protection from government intrusion; areas with a high expectation of privacy may generally not be searched without a warrant founded on probable cause?

87. _____ is known as informal police stops of individuals.

88. _____ is defined as the area immediately surrounding the home, considered part of the home.

89. _____ is property intentionally discarded by the owner.

90. Is standing a defendant’s eligibility to contest the legality of a search?

91. _____ is known as a practice ruled unconstitutional in 1960, in which federal officials relied on evidence in federal prosecutions that had been seized by state officials in violation of the Eighth Amendment.

92. _____ is defined as the effect of an attenuated connection between an illegal search and evidence seized in such a search; if the connection is attenuate, it is said to purge the taint of the illegal search.

93. _____ is a rule providing that evidence seized as the result of an unconstitutional search is admissible where the government can prove that it would inevitably have been discovered in a lawful fashion.

94. Is independent source doctrine the principle that provides that evidence unlawfully seized nevertheless is admissible where the police are able to demonstrate that the same evidence was also obtained through independent and lawful means?

95. _____ is known as an exception to the exclusion of illegally seized evidence in situations where an officer has acted in the good faith belief that his or her conduct complies with the Fourth Amendment.

96. _____ is defined as evidence derived from unlawfully seized evidence.

97. _____ is a rule that evidence that is obtained as a result of a violation of the Fourth Amendment prohibition on unreasonable searches and seizures is inadmissible in a criminal prosecution to establish a defendant’s guilt.

98. Is derivative evidence evidence that is discovered as a result of an unlawful seizure?

99. _____ is known as permits the use of unlawfully seized evidence in proceedings that are not part of a formal trial.

100. _____ is defined as a term used to describe a weak link between an unreasonable search and the resulting seizure of evidence; the exclusionary rule does not apply where evidence is attenuated.