General Software Testing MCQs

1. Signs of a mature tester include:

2. True or False? Glass Box testing and White Box testing are functionally very different tests.

3. Why would a tester use equivalence class testing?

4. What is difference between Pilot Testing and Beta Testing?

5. Stress testing does NOT place an emphasis on which of the following?

6. Complete this sentence as best as possible: Equivalence partitioning __________.

7. A simple performance test is basically ___

8. What is Regression Testing?

9. Which of the following is a technique used in black-box testing?

10. True or False? User acceptance testing is typically among the first tests performed.

11. True or false? Zero and one are typically in the same equivalence class.

12. Which of the following (combinations of) individuals would be present during a formal inspection?

13. When should the testing team start planning the test of a given software release?

14. Software testing which is done without planning and documentation is known as:

15. What is unit testing?

16. ____________ is a testing method that divides the input data set into classes of data for the test cases.

17. Who performs beta testing?

18. What are the differences between a test plan and a use case?

19. Which of the following is typically NOT included in a test case?

20. _____________ tests the functionality of the software without knowledge of the internal structures, design, or implementation of the software.

21. What is the difference between testing and debugging?

22. What is the difference between functional and non-functional testing?

23. Non-Functional Software testing performed to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand is known as:

24. What is Unit Testing?

25. With 100,000 users on a typical day how many page views would there be?

26. True or False? The cost of correcting defects at an early stage in the Software Development Life Cycle is less than correcting them at a later stage.

27. A collection of test cases is also commonly known as a ______.

28. Which of the following is the name of a popular automated testing tool?

29. Describe Risk Analysis

30. How often should software engineers test their code?

31. The most relevant meaning of SDLC in relation to software testing is:

32. True or False? Software verification and software validation are the same thing.

33. Which of the following is NOT a software testing approach type?

34. A solid program manager should be ____

35. What is a test plan?

36. BVT stands for ______.

37. __________ is testing performed by the customer, usually at the customer's site, immediately prior to release.

38. True or false? Stress testing doesn't work in an agile model.

39. Which of the following is a Performance testing tool?

40. True or false? Zero and null are the almost always the same from a test perspective.

41. A ____________ is a description of inputs, execution steps, and expected results written in order to determine if a specific requirement has been met or whether a specific software feature works correctly.

42. Which one of the following is NOT a commonly used tool for automating testing?

43. _____________ tests the performance of the system under a heavy load.

44. If an expected result is not specified, then:

45. What is the difference between re-testing and regression testing?

46. What is portability testing?

47. Which model is most suitable for rapid development

48. ________ is the process of executing a program or piece of software with the intent of finding an error.

49. True or false? All tests should be automated by the end of the product cycle.

50. How do you ensure that all requirements have been met?

51. What is one of the reasons to have independent software testing teams?

52. What is the main purpose of use case testing?

53. What type of testing is component testing?

54. ________ is the process that developers go through to identify the cause of defects in code and undertake corrections.

55. Which testing method tests internal structures or workings of a program, as opposed to the functionality exposed to the end user?

56. What is boundary value testing?

57. In which testing method are the internal structures, design, implementation of the software known at the time of testing?

58. What does BCT stand for?

59. What kind of tools would you use for the automation of regression tests?

60. True or False? QA and software testing are synonyms.

61. If a input box accepts value of range 1-1000, then the following answers are FALSE if using EP technique

62. Elements of an excellent tester include ____

63. Which of the following is not a type of performance testing?

64. ______ tests how well the user will be able to understand and interact with the system.

65. Which of the following is NOT true?

66. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good test case?

67. Which is not part of a test plan?

68. Which of the following is NOT an activity completed during test planning?

69. True or false. Once all the bugs are fixed, ship the product.

70. What is a browser matrix?

71. Which Software Development Life Cycle model requires testing activities to start at the same time as development activities?

72. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of blackbox testing?

73. ________ is the degree to which a piece of software can be tested.

74. What is reliability testing?

75. True or False? Instrumentation is performed by coverage measurement tools in pre-compiler pass.

76. 5th Level in TMM

77. True or false? Ajax enabling a website increases the number of server requests.

78. What is a branch?

79. A program point where the control flow has two or more alternative routes is known as what?

80. A tester needs to think like _____

81. Which of these instances of finding a software defect will result in the least loss of time and money to fix?

82. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

83. Using Performance Tests to project server specs and server scale requires:

84. True or false? Simultaneous execution is a minor effect in performance testing.

85. Load Testing is ______

86. Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform stress testing?

87. Stress testing should start ______.

88. Which of these are NOT phases of the 'IDEAL' organizational improvement model?

89. TMM Means

90. __________ uses short development cycles where a test is written prior to code.

91. Testing should be stopped when

92. Testing an object without execution on a computer is known as _____.

93. Which of the following is NOT a common resolution type for a defect?

94. Which of the following is a good way to grade a tester?

95. What is mutation testing?

96. True or false? All WC3 errors should be fixed to ship.

97. Running a system at high load for an extended period of time is called:

98. Stress testing hardware must be _____

99. A system includes a database server, a caching server, and an application server. How many integration points are there?

100. ______ is a method of testing where the software isn't used that checks the sanity of the code or algorithm.

101. RC1 stands for ______.

102. Test driven development (TDD) refers to what?

103. Executing the same test case by changing the input on the same build is called:

104. Which of the following is NOT a way stress may be placed on a piece of software?

105. What is the other name of All-Pairs Testing?

106. Who should perform validation testing?

107. Which of the following is NOT a reason to believe two test cases will produce the same result and fall in the same equivalence class?

108. ‘Be bugging’ is known as

109. When should the test environment setup be done?

110. Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

111. Verification is:

112. An operator verifies that all production jobs are run. This is:

113. True or False? CAST stands for Computer-Aided Simple Testing?

114. Testing only the changes or modifications is called

115. Which of the following is NOT a form of dynamic testing?

116. A sports team plays 3 games a season. How many tests does a comprehensive test plan need to cover all the possible season results?

117. How stable is the ZBB build?

118. Power outage testing is part of ________.

119. Which of the following can inspections NOT find?

120. Resource hog tools are part of ________.

121. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic or factor in testability.

122. Which one of the following is NOT a reason for automating software testing?

123. In a TDD model:

124. The function max(a,b) has how many equivalence classes?

125. A function int abs(int input) has how many equivalence classes?

126. What type of performance testing would you want run repeatedly to ensure consistent system performance?

127. All of the following might be done during unit testing except

128. What is the major advantage of bottom-up integration testing?

129. How many equivalence classes are there for testing an integer?

130. An expert based test estimation is also known as

131. ________________ is the process of evaluating software to ensure it meets the specified requirements.

132. Which of these is a sql injection attack for login?

133. What value test function will get function test (+'5') { }

134. ZBB stands for ______.

135. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing?

136. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’

137. Out of these Testing levels,for which level ,the White box testing is not viable:

138. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of

139. Flip a coin. Using a software testing mindset, how many outcomes are possible?

140. When should test cases be written?

141. What is the name of an analysis method that determines which parts of the software have been executed by the test case suite, and which parts have not been executed and therefore may require additional attention?

142. __________ is the set of procedures used throughout the software lifecycle to ensure the software will meet its requirements.

143. How many ways are there to make 100 cents with identical American currency units?

144. Stress testing should use ____

145. What error would occur if event B occurs before event A, with event A being the intended first completed event?

146. True or False? A failure, if encountered, may result in a fault.

147. Smoke testing might best be described as:

148. which one is NOT the correct ordering of formal review process?

149. A function that returns the type of triangle has how many equivalence classes?

150. What of these tools is good fit for GUI testing and use Jython programming language?

151. A good rule of thumb is ___

152. Which of the following is NOT a cost of software failures?

153. All these answers are a single test suite. Which one does not need to be run in a test run?

154. Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if

155. A slider shows an integer value of up to 5. How many possible values are there?

156. In testing, the 80/20 rule is_________.

157. Testing by executing programmed code with a given set of test cases is referred to as:

158. Determining whether or not it is reasonable to continue testing is known as _____.

159. Which of the following is NOT true of statement coverage?

160. How many test cases should you execute to completely test a user experience containing only a single button?

161. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed software modifications?

162. In agile testing ___

163. Software testing is the process of validating and verifying that a system:

164. ___________ tests the stability and responsiveness of the software under a particular workload.

165. The process of using a test case to test a specific unit of code, function, or capability is called:

166. In which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of efficient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?

167. Which of the following options correctly defines the term 'test harness'?

168. Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verifies that the product fulfills the intended requirements?

169. Network elements are monitored and controlled using the following basic SNMP commands? (choose all that apply)

170. OTS components produced by the vendor organizations are known as _____.

171. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress? i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

172. Give three components included in a system test report.

173. The following f‌ive tasks are needed to develop, use and maintain Test scripts. 1.Unit scripting 2.Pseudo concurrency scripting 3.Integration scripting 4.Regression scripting 5.Stress/Performance scripting

174. Four examples of test specific metrics.

175. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modif‌ication, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:

176. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

177. The process of using a test case to test a specif‌ic unit of code, function, or capability is called:

178. Why is it necessary to def‌ine a Test Strategy?

179. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change show up in some test?

180. i. static analysis ii. performance testing iii. test management iv. dynamic analysis v. test running vi. test data preparation

181. Usability testing indicates that the design and system should be modif‌ied if:

182. Identif‌ication of set-use pairs is accomplished during which of the following static analysis activities?

183. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -

184. From the following options. choose the best example which represents a reliability failure for an application:

185. Which of the following list contains only non—functional tests?

186. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?

187. Defect Density is calculated by

188. Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process.

189. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables have been deliveredii. Defect report analysis.iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.iv. Analyzing lessons.

190. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?

191. Which of the following approach needs to be taken if there are a large number of defects being found in the software?1. Try continuing testing and logging the critical defects.2. Immediately stop testing the product.3. Inform the lead/manager providing proper documentation<4. Continue testing in the normal manner

192. Which ofthe following statements is incorrect in relation to Smoke Testing and Sanity Testing?

193. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

194. Which activities form part of test planning?i) Developing test cases.ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.iii) Assigning resources.iv) Building the test environmentv) Writing test conditions.

195. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan

196. Which of the following options correctly def‌ines the term 'test harness'?

197. Which of the following statements is correct?

198. Which is a true prevention mechanism

199. Benchmark Testing: It is the method of comparing performance of your system performance against an industry standard that is set by other organization Whereas Baseline Testing: It is the procedure of running a set of tests to capture performance information. When future change is made in the application. this information is used as a reference

200. Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?a. Scheduling test analysis and design.b. Designing Test Conditions.c. Monitoring test progress.d. identifying the objectives of testing.e. Evaluating test tools.f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

201. Success Factors for a review include:i. Each Review does not have a predefined objectiveii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectivelyiii. Management supports a good review process.iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.

202. Choose the statement that best describes “Integration Test”

203. What are the types of Beta Testing? (choose all that apply)

204. In which order should tests be run?

205. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?

206. Choose the statement that best describes ‘Test Case’.

207. Components of automation infrastructure consist of the following?

208. Choose the correct statement that describes the role tests for “Requirements analysis” in a scrum methodology.

209. Which option below would be included in a Smoke Test for an API?

210. Choose the best description for the difference between manual and automated testing.

211. In Metrics, service level agreements require that participating sites must deploy a common user environment, such as the TeraGrid _____ , which includes a software stack and default user environment.

212. What are the typical test activities in software development? (choose all that apply)

213. Choose the correct statement as applies to load and stress testing.

214. In the context of software testing what is a “Sanity check”?

215. A hardware engineering process consists of?

216. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

217. Choose the statement that best describes “Smoke Test”.

218. Test cases are designed during:

219. Which is not a testing principle?

220. In Level 2:Phase Institutionalize basic testing techniques and methods can initiate a test planning process by: (choose all that apply)

221. The theory establishes a relationship between three sets of entities specifications ___ and tests?

222. Which of the following statements is not true?

223. A test harness is a:

224. A domain error can be caused by?

225. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

226. In software engineering the term “waterfall” refers to?

227. Junit is a framework for performing unit testing of _____ programs?

228. Independent Verification & Validation is

229. In Test Process Management, test processes are highly visible to __. (choose all that apply)

230. what should a tester report?

231. The most important thing about early test design is that it:

232. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost savings from the use of CAST?

233. A failure is:

234. The cost of fixing a fault:

235. Which of the following metrics can be collected from a code review? (choose all that apply)

236. Non-functional system testing includes:

237. Which one of the following is a major benefit of verification early in the software development life cycle?

238. Which of the following is not a type of Incremental testing approach?

239. In which type of testing is random data generated for input into the software?

240. What is the main reason for testing a software immediately before releasing it?

241. Select the Incorrect Statement involves in Performance Testing Process?1.Right testing environment: Figure out the physical test environment before carry performance testing, like hardware, software and network configuration2.Identify the performance acceptance criteria: It contains constraints and goals for throughput, response times and resource allocation3.Plan and design Performance tests: Define how usage is likely to vary among end users, and f‌ind key scenarios to test for all possible use cases4.Test environment configuration: Before the execution, prepare the testing environment and arranges tools, other resources, etc.5.Test design implementation: According to your test design. create a performance test6.Run the tests: Execute and monitor the tests7.Analyze, tune and retest: Analyze, consolidate and share test results. After that, fine tune and test again to see if there is any enhancement in performance. Stop the test. if CPU is causing bottlenecking.

242. Which of the following is true about Sanity Testing?

243. Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning is correct?

244. When a defect is detected and f‌ixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

245. Which of the following types of testing is likely to benefit the most from the use of test tools that provide the test capture and replay facilities?

246. What is the name of the testing method in which (for each pair of input parameters) all the possible discrete combinations of parameters are passed on?

247. From the options given below which of the dynamic program analysis technique is aimed at improving application performance?

248. The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:

249. Which of the following is not included in Non-functional testing?

250. What would be the appropriate result of a Stress test at its peak?

251. The testing phase in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group is called:

252. Which of the following statements is not true regarding capture/replay tools?

253. Which of the following testing occurs outside the development environment?

254. The main focus of Black-box testing is:

255. Exit Criteria may consist of: -i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or riskii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areasiv. Verifying the Test Environment.

256. Which of the following is incorrect for Black-box testing?

257. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:i.static analysisii.performance testingiii.test managementiv.dynamic analysisv.test runningvi.test data preparation

258. Which of the following is written by a programmer and is meant to call the function to be tested by passing test data to it?

259. testing is used to evaluate and understand the application's reliability, scalability and interoperability when more users are added or the volume of data is increased.

260. What is the difference between Regression testing and Retesting?

261. Which of the following resources are tested by most of the Stress testing tools?

262. The testing performed by external organizations or standards bodies to give greater guarantee of compliance is called:

263. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is carried out?

264. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Test Automation?

265. Which of the following Security testing concepts deals with the process of determining whether a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation?

266. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:

267. Which of the following strategies are used for Integration testing?

268. Selecting the test inputs that are likely to reveal a failure associated with a particular defect is an example of the use of:

269. Performance testing is used for real-time systems only.

270. The determination of adherence or non-adherence to compliance is carried out during:

271. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Code coverage?

272. Choose the correct description of a Stub in software testing:

273. Which of the following is false about software testing?

274. Which of the following tools supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests?

275. The review of a technical document such as requirements specs or a test plan, with the purpose of looking for problems and seeing what is missing, without fixing anything is called:

276. Which of the following models of software development incorporates testing of Verification and Validation phases of software development life cycle?

277. In Bottom-up integration testing,

278. Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following items be recorded? Sections a)Test incident report identif‌ier b)Summary c)lncident description d)lmpact Items 1.lmpact on test plans 2.Unique identifier 3.Anomalies 4.Procedure step 5.Environment 6.References to other relevant documents

279. Which of the following statements holds true for Verification and Validation?

280. in which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of eff‌icient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?

281. Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verif‌ies that the product fulf‌ills the intended requirements?

282. What is Boundary value testing?

283. Beta testing is performed by:

284. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?

285. Which of the following is true regarding Static Analysis tools?

286. Identify the defect which can be detected by Equivalence Partitioning Technique:

287. Which of the following test activities provides the maximum potential cost savings from the use of Computer-Aided Software Testing (CAST)?

288. Which of the following is not a Static testing methodology?

289. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.ii. Determining the test approach (techniques. test items. coverage. identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements. architecture, design, interface)iv. Determining the exit criteria. 

290. Which of the following types of errors are uncovered in White-box testing?

291. Which of the following are benefits of automated testing?

292. Which of the following are the objectives of using a 'test harness'?

293. What do you understand by the term 'Monkey test'?

294. When installing new software, it is recommended to install it in/on ____.

295. A measure that results in drastically different ratings over time lacks _____ reliability.