Forensic Psychology MCQ Questions Answers

1. Type of saw and "teeth per inch" are ___________ characteristics of saws.

2. When family members are the victims of female serial killers _____ are the primary targets.

3. Cognitive influences affect _____ level of analysis.

4. The ____________________ statement is typically used for two purposes:

5. Forensic psychology was established with the work of ____.

6. ____________ is a constructive response to another's self-disclosure.

7. According to the text, caregiving parent-child relations might best be characterized by ________.

8. _______________ formed a large part of freud's psychoanalytic method.

9. The textbook states that _________ is the most critical influence on adolescents' adjustment.

10. The percentage of u.s. school-age children who live in single-parent households is _____.

11. Compared with single-parent homes, two-parent homes usually have _____.

12. _____ is an official request to the court that a juvenile’s case be transferred to criminal court, or transferred from criminal court to juvenile court.

13. Is teaching-family model a model used particularly in group homes for delinquents or for children at risk. It includes adults playing the role of “parent,” encouraging youth to be socialized in a healthy family context?

14. _____ is known as provision that gives prosecutors the authority to decide whether the case will be taken to juvenile court or criminal court.

15. _____ is defined as the term used when defendants are jailed before trial specifically because they might flee or are considered too dangerous for pretrial release. Preventive detention for juveniles can be used if they are at risk of committing more crime, not necessarily violent crime.

16. _____ is the doctrine in law that establishes the right of the state to substitute its presumably benevolent decision making for that of individuals who are thought to be unable or unwilling to make their own decisions. Applied particularly in cases involving children, juveniles, mentally disordered individuals, and intellectually disabled people.

17. Is office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Pre­vention (OJJDP) the federal agency charged with overseeing juvenile justice on the national level, providing grants for juvenile research and programs, and taking a leadership role in setting policies nationwide relative to juveniles?

18. _____ is known as a community treatment approach for serious juvenile offenders that focuses on the family while being responsive to the many other contexts surrounding the family, such as the peer group, the neighborhood, and the school.

19. _____ is defined as treatment model developed specifically with chronic offenders in the child welfare system.

20. _____ is multisite study of adjudicative competence in juveniles.

21. Is legislative waiver, statutory exclusion, or waiver by statute terms used for the automatic processing of juveniles in criminal courts, typically for serious crimes. Many states, for example, require by statute that juveniles 14 and above who are charged with murder be tried in criminal courts. In some jurisdictions, criminal court judges have the authority to transfer the juvenile to juvenile court?

22. Is juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) landmark federal legislation passed in 1974 that attempted to address the needs of juveniles in the juvenile justice sys­tem as well as those considered at risk for delinquency?

23. _____ is known as temporary secure or nonsecure placement pending adjudication or during adjudication proceedings, up to a final disposition.

24. _____ is defined as the process by which a judge transfers a juvenile’s case to criminal court.

25. _____ is in juvenile law, this is the youth’s first official contact with the juvenile court system; the intake officer often has discretion to warn the youth, refer the youth for prosecution, or divert the youth to community services.

26. Is houses of refuge institutional settings presumably intended to protect, nurture, and educate neglected or wayward children during the mid-19th century?

27. _____ is known as family preservation approach that tries to keep antisocial children in their homes and offers highly intensive services to the family for a short period of time.

28. _____ is defined as developed in the 1970s for behaviorally disturbed adolescents whose parents were unable to control their acting-out behaviors. It combines social learning, cognitive-behavioral, interpersonal, and family systems theories.

29. _____ is approaches that try to prevent youth with minor behavioral problems and their family from becoming more dysfunctional. The major intention is to keep the family unit together, presuming that this is in the best interest of the family as a whole.

30. Is diversion any one of a number of programs used to steer someone away from formal or traditional court processing, such as diversion of juveniles to a substance abuse program or diversion of some defendants to mental health courts?

31. _____ is known as the observation that racial and ethnic minorities are disproportionately detained and incarcerated.

32. _____ is defined as the resolution of a legal matter. In criminal law, an example would be the sentence a defendant receives. In civil law, the disposition of a case may be a judgment in favor of the plaintiff. In juvenile law, a disposition is the equivalent of a criminal sentence.

33. _____ is the equivalent of a criminal trial in adult courts. Juveniles have constitu­tional rights similar to adult offenders, including rights to an attor­ney, to confront and cross-examine their accusers, and to not testify against themselves. They do not have a constitutional right to a jury or to an open proceeding, though some states grant these rights.

34. Is delinquency petition in juvenile courts, the prosecutor’s document charging a juvenile with an offense that, if proven, would qualify the juvenile as a delinquent?

35. _____ is known as mandate from the JJDPA that states receiving funds for juvenile jus­tice programs must remove all juveniles from adult jails and must also remove status offenders from secure institutions.

36. _____ is defined as ability to make decisions in one’s own best interest. Research indicates that juveniles—given their stage of development—are unlikely to have the emotional sophistication and maturity to make such decisions when confronted with the criminal justice process.

37. _____ is in the juvenile justice system, this refers to giving juveniles a mix of juvenile and adult sanctions, such as a juvenile treatment program followed by adult parole supervision once the juvenile has reached adulthood.

38. Is biological/neurological perspective the research perspective that biological, genetic, or neuropsychological factors make a significant contribution to aggression?

39. _____ is refers to the extent to which an offender, particularly a juvenile, is likely to benefit from programs or services available within an institutional or community setting.

40. Is aggression replacement training (ART) treatment program for aggressive children and adolescents consisting of skillstreaming (teaching a broad range of prosocial behaviors), anger control training, and moral reasoning?

41. _____ is known as in the juvenile justice system, this term is the equivalent of parole.

42. _____ is defined as high-security facilities (or units within a maximum-security prison) supposedly intended to hold the most troublesome, violent inmates, either in complete isolation or in two-person quarters.

43. _____ is principles identified by Andrews and Bonta, widely believed and documented to be associ­ated with effective psychological treatment.

44. Is right to treatment statutory right that stipulates that incarcerated and institutionalized persons have a right to receive care and treatment suited to their needs?

45. _____ is known as judges’ decisions concerning whether to confine an individual or place him or her on probation or release prior to trial.

46. _____ is defined as a method of treatment primar­ily designed to prevent a relapse of an undesired behavioral pattern. Often used in sexual offender treatment.

47. _____ is any attempt intended to bring about changes in behavioral or thought patterns.

48. Is psychological assessment refers to all the techniques used to measure and evaluate an individual’s past, present, or future psychological status. Usually includes interviews, observations, and various measuring procedures that may or may not include psychological tests?

49. _____ is known as a form of isolation in which the inmate is separated from others for his or her own safety.

50. _____ is defined as a sentence to serve time in the community, subject to supervision and conditions imposed by courts or probation officers.

51. _____ is correctional facilities operated by state and federal governments to hold persons convicted of felonies and sentenced generally to terms of more than 1 year.

52. Is prison transfer process whereby prisoners are moved from one facility to another, sometimes without notice?

53. _____ is known as federal law requir­ing prisons and jails to address the problem of sexual assault within such facilities.

54. _____ is defined as those persons held in jail before trial because either they are unable to afford bail, or they were denied bail because they were considered dangerous.

55. _____ is the conditional release of an offender after completing a portion of his or her sentence.

56. Is noncriminogenic needs needs that are subject to change but have been found to have little influence on an offender’s criminal behavior. Psychological states such as depression, anxiety, or low self-esteem are examples used by some researchers?

57. _____ is known as a modification of the LSI that focuses on determining the clinical and social services the individual should ideally receive.

58. _____ is defined as assesses dynamic and static risk factors to determine offender needs for ser­vices as well as risk of reconviction, including for violent offenses.

59. _____ is facilities operated by local governments to hold persons temporarily detained, awaiting trial, or sentenced to short-term (typically under 1 year) confinement after having been convicted of a misdemeanor.

60. Is intermediate sanctions supervision that is less restrictive than residential placement but more restrictive than the standard probation under which the juvenile or adult offender remains in his or her own home with conditions attached. Sometimes referred to as probation-plus or parole-plus. Examples may include intensive supervision, day-reporting requirements, or electronic monitoring?

61. _____ is known as correctional supervision of offenders who are on probation or parole but are assigned to heightened supervision or offered additional services.

62. _____ is defined as community supervision programs that match the risk level of offenders with their criminogenic and noncriminogenic needs.

63. _____ is broad term for facilities that confine inmates; applies also to their rules, policies, and practices.

64. Is incarceration rate number of persons incarcerated in prisons and jails per specified number in the population—on national level, reported per 100,000 U.S. population?

65. _____ is known as the major federal agency that coordinates all services provided in federal facilities, such as detention centers, prisons, and hospitals. The BOP also supports research on many aspects of corrections and provides internships for doctoral students interested in careers in corrections.

66. _____ is defined as in prisons and jails, punishment (physical isolation) for violation of rules. Also may be called solitary confinement.

67. _____ is facilities where pretrial detainees are held. Jails serve as detention centers as well as incarceration for persons sentenced to short terms, typically under 1 year.

68. Is crisis intervention the intervention of mental health practitioners into emergency or crisis situations, such as suicide attempts, emotional agitation, or psychotic behavior displayed during confinement?

69. _____ is known as those dynamic risk factors that have been empirically found to be related to criminal behavior, such as substance abuse or misogynistic attitudes.

70. _____ is defined as the legal requirement that a person convicted of a capital crime and sentenced to death must, at the time of execution, be emotionally stable or intellectually capable enough to understand the meaning of being put to death.

71. _____ is correctional facilities that are not institutions and allow supervision of juveniles or adults within their own homes or in special community facilities, such as halfway houses.

72. Is community corrections the broad term for a wide variety of options that allow persons convicted of crime to be supervised in the community, such as being placed on probation. Term also applies to parole, the supervision of former prisoners in the community?

73. _____ is known as an approach to therapy that focuses on changing beliefs, fantasies, attitudes, and rational­izations that justify and perpetuate antisocial or other problematic behavior. Believed to be the most effective treatment approach for both adult and juvenile offenders.

74. _____ is defined as treatment approach based on the assumption that rewarding people (e.g., inmates or incarcerated juveniles) for “good behavior” and removing privileges when behavior is unacceptable will produce positive changes in behavior.

75. _____ is a form of custody exercised by prison administrators to isolate an inmate physically from the rest of the prison population for a variety of reasons, including but not limited to protection of the inmate.

76. Is vicarious traumatization occurs when clinicians are exposed to a series of trauma victims, which often leads to a high incidence of professional burnout?

77. _____ is known as refers to the research finding that the things we experience in one emotional or physiological state—such as happiness, fear, or even intoxication—are sometimes easier to recall when we are again in that same state.

78. _____ is defined as evaluates an individual’s risk of committing violence against a spouse or intimate partner.

79. _____ is see Abusive head trauma.

80. Is repression refers to the psychological process of keeping something out of awareness because of the traumatic effect connected with it?

81. _____ is known as state of being unaware that a traumatic event occurred.

82. _____ is defined as perspective that memory is continually vulnerable to revision.

83. _____ is instrument recommended for use by law enforcement officers and others to determine the likelihood that an individual will commit future violence within the family.

84. Is neonaticide the killing of a newborn, usually under 48 hours old, sometimes defined as under 24 hours old?

85. _____ is known as an unusual form of child abuse in which the parent (usually the mother) or par­ents consistently bring a child for medical attention with symptoms falsified or directly induced by the parent or parents. Term is gradu­ally being replaced by the term child medical abuse.

86. _____ is defined as violent crimes commit­ted against persons by their current or former spouses, boyfriends, or girlfriends.

87. _____ is normal lack of memory of events that happened very early in one’s life, typically but not necessarily before age 4.

88. Is infanticide although this term literally means the killing of an infant, it is also used for the killing of a child by a parent, and is then divided into neonaticide and filicide?

89. _____ is known as a process whereby mental or physical disorders are unintentionally induced or developed in patients by physicians, clinicians, or psychotherapists.

90. _____ is defined as batterers who are likely to use weapons and who are more prone to inflict severe injury on wives, partners, and other family members, in addition to engaging in extrafamilial violence.

91. _____ is refers to memory—usually considerably accurate—of high-impact events, such as an automobile accident or a mass shooting.

92. Is filicide killing of one’s child who is older than 1 year?

93. _____ is known as these are violent offenders who usually do not engage in violence outside the family. Their violence tends to be periodic, primarily when stress and frustration reach a peak.

94. _____ is defined as refers to any assault, including sexual assault, or other crime that results in the personal injury or death of one or more family or household member(s) by another who is or was residing in the same dwelling.

95. _____ is defined as the physical, financial, emotional, or psychological harm of an older adult, usually defined as age 65 or older.

96. Is dysphoric/borderline batterers batterers who exhibit mental disorders and are psychologically disturbed and emotionally volatile. These individuals often engage in moderate to severe spousal abuse, including psychological and sexual abuse?

97. _____ is known as one of the measures used to assess the extent of violence in a relationship and predict the likelihood of future occurrence.

98. _____ is defined as a measure used by researchers and clinicians to gauge the level of disruption and violence in inter­personal relationships.

99. _____ is unlawfully leading, taking, enticing, or detaining a child under a specified age with intent to keep or conceal the child from the parent, guardian, or other person having lawful custody.

100. Is battering a term often reserved for physical violence experienced in intimate relationships, such as in a dating relationship, marriage or partnership, or separation and divorce?