General Networking MCQs

1. True or false? Inviting colleagues to lunch can be an effective networking tool.

2. If you only know someone through a social networking site like LinkedIn or Facebook, it's inappropriate to ask him or her for an in-person meeting.

3. If you want to maintain a professional connection with your old supervisor, what is the recommended frequency in which you should you touch base?

4. What is the golden rule of networking?

5. Which of the following is NOT commonly found on business cards?

6. Which of the following is the best definition of professional networking?

7. What is LinkedIn most commonly used for amongst entry-level employees?

8. Which of the following is a good icebreaker at a networking event?

9. What is the recommended way you should act while at a networking event?

10. What should you ask your contacts for when job hunting?

11. True or false? For efficiency's sake, you should ignore contacts that are not directly related to your interests.

12. Which of the following is an appropriate way to keep in touch with a contact you made while networking?

13. After meeting a new contact, it is recommended that you:

14. What is LinkedIn most commonly used for amongst Middle Management?

15. Prior to attending a networking event, you should:

16. True or False? It is best to start networking when you are looking for a job and not before or after you are hired.

17. In a networking situation, when should you give the other person your business card?

18. When meeting someone for the first time, what do you want to avoid?

19. Which of the following is probably the worst networking question?

20. At a networking event, you should:

21. If you're applying for a position at a contact's company, you should ask:

22. After landing a job, what should you do?

23. Which is an appropriate comment during a networking event.

24. What is the recommended number of people should you speak with at one time while networking?

25. What is the recommended way to tag-team a networking event with a co-worker or friend?

26. At a networking event, you should open up a conversation with ________.

27. Which of the following is probably the best networking question?

28. What is LinkedIn most commonly used for?

29. If you become bored with the new person you are speaking with at a networking event, you should:

30. At a networking event, it is generally best to ask _________ questions.

31. True or False? When attempting to connect with someone for the first time via social media, you should send them a long, detailed message.

32. True of false? Online social networks are not effective tools for formal business networking.

33. True or false? If you cannot establish a contact in the first meeting, then it is a waste of time to keep building the relationship.

34. After you get a business card from someone who can help you, you should ________.

35. Which of the following is the best way to end a conversation at a networking event?

36. True or false? Introducing your contacts to each other can help strengthen your personal network.

37. What should you do immediately with a new contact's business card?

38. What is a good question to ask someone you're networking with?

39. True or False? At a networking event, you should listen more than you talk about yourself.

40. Thanking people who help you is one way to stand out from the crowd and get even more referrals from them.

41. When you meet someone you want to build a relationship with, it's best to:

42. When inviting someone to connect with you on LinkedIn, what is the appropriate etiquette?

43. What should you always bring to a networking event?

44. True or False? Networking is an activity for young people at the beginning of their career, not for successful professionals.

45. Which of the following is an aspect of personal brand?

46. True or false? Twitter can be an effective networking tool.

47. Is it appropriate to drink at a networking event?

48. Which of the following are inappropriate places for networking?

49. To avoid seeming intrusive or presumptuous, you should offer to help contacts only when they specifically ask for your help.

50. True or false? The main goal of networking is to get as many questions answered as possible.

51. True or False? You should try to sell your product by making a sales pitch while networking.

52. When attempting to connect with someone you haven't met yet on LinkedIn, which of the following would be good to include in your message?

53. When arriving at a networking event with a colleague, you should _________.

54. You should think of your networking connections as:

55. Apologizing when asking a professional contact for help shows:

56. What is the recommended number of times you should share and comment on a LinkedIn connections' posts?

57. What is a referral group?

58. Which side should you wear your name tag on at a networking event?

59. What is the suggested waiting period between meeting a new professional connection and contacting them?

60. The most effective networkers take frequent breaks from networking, to give their mental batteries a chance to recharge.

61. Which of the following is the best example of a strategic alliance?

62. Since networking can be so time-consuming, it's a good idea to research new prospects while updating current contacts on your search campaign.

63. What is the recommended number of times you should update your status on LinkedIn so you remain active and are visible to connections?

64. Which cable uses RJ45 connectors?

65. Which one is not a fiber optic based network?

66. What is the speed of a T1 line?

67. What is the IEEE 802.3 standard related to?

68. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of connections (connection-oriented/ connection-less communication)?

69. How many bits of the MAC address are used by OUI portion?

70. What do you call a communication system in which data cannot be sent in both directions at the same time?

71. What is a checksum?

72. According to the OSI model, which layer performs the function of transforming bits of data into electrical signals and sending those signals across the media?

73. What is the maximum transmission speed of CAT 5 cable?

74. What do you call a fibre optic cable in which the light signals follow a single path?

75. According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for sending acknowledgements?

76. Which media access technique does Ethernet use?

77. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issues of communication media and cable connectors etc?

78. For which layer of the OSI model has the Ethernet standard been defined?

79. What is ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)?

80. Which of the following is a Class A network?

81. What does ISDN stand for?

82. Which cable used for RJ11 connectors?

83. Which type of network uses dual fibre-optic rings?

84. Which protocol is connection oriented?

85. What is the full form of DSL?

86. Full form of PPPoE?

87. Which ranges are reserved as private addresses?

88. At which layer of the OSI model, does a Proxy Server operate?

89. What is multiplexing?

90. Which protocol does not support Routing?

91. Which one is a disadvantage of Peer Networks?

92. Which one is used as a high speed network backbone media?

93. At which layer of the OSI model, does FTP operate?

94. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of network topologies (star, ring, bus etc)?

95. Purpose of the shielding in a Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable?

96. Purpose of the MAC sublayer?

97. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

98. According to the OSI model, which layer breaks down the data into frames?

99. According to the OSI model, which layer performs parity checking and error checking?

100. Which cable can be used to connect a PC and a Hub?

101. What does CSMA/CD stand for?

102. What do you call a communication system which uses a clocking mechanism to synchronize the sender and receiver?

103. What is the maximum number of valid IP addresses in a class B network?

104. What do you call a communication system which uses start and stop bits to synchronize the sender and receiver?

105. Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to IP?

106. What is the IEEE 802.5 standard related to?

107. What is attenuation?

108. According to the OSI model, which layer performs encryption and decryption?

109. In a TCP/IP network, which layers are basically absent?

110. What are PPP and SLIP most commonly used for?

111. What is the speed of a E1 line?

112. At which layer of the OSI model, does SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) operate?

113. What do you call a medium which only allows a single channel?

114. According to the OSI model, at which layer are network addresses assigned?

115. Which cabling media does not suffer from Electro-Magnetic Interference(EMI)?

116. What is the X.25 protocol?

117. Which network topology does Ethernet use?

118. Which protocol uses port number 23?

119. At which layer does a Bridge operate?

120. Which cable can be used to directly connect two PCs?

121. Which one is an 'end-to-end' layer?

122. At which layer of the OSI model, does HTTP operate?

123. Which type of connector is mostly used these days for connectivity with the network card?

124. Which media suffers least from attenuation?

125. According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for sending acknowledgements of successful data transfer?

126. What do you call a communication system in which data can be sent in both directions at the same time?

127. According to the OSI model, which layer handles the LAN switching?

128. Which layer do Network Cards and their drivers correspond to?

129. At which layer of OSI model does a network bridges or switches operate?

130. Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to TCP?

131. How many bearer (B) and data (D) channels are there in a standard ISDN BRI service?

132. Which network uses optical fiber?

133. Old mainframe computers were an example of ______?

134. What do you call a medium which allows multiple channels?

135. Recommended maximum length(approx) for a segment of UTP cable?

136. Maximum transmission speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?

137. At which layer does a Router operate?

138. According to the OSI model, which layer performs compression and decompression?

139. At which layer does a Hub operate?

140. What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B + 1D channel?

141. How is a unique MAC address assigned to a Network Card?

142. For which cable 8P8C connectors are used?

143. According to the OSI model, which layer provides services such as file transfer, database access and email?

144. At which layer of the OSI model, does a World Wide Web browser operate?

145. Which one is a Fiber Optic Connector?

146. At which layer of the OSI model does Ethernet operate?

147. What is the IEEE 802.2 standard related to?

148. According to the OSI model, which layer performs the encryption and decryption of data?

149. What are V.42, V.22, V.42bis?

150. According to the OSI model, at which layer internet protocol (IP) addresses are assigned?

151. In a TCP/IP network, which one must be unique for each computer in the network?

152. When compared to OSI model, the functionality of which two layers is incorporated in the application layer of TCP/IP model?

153. CSMA/CA stand for?

154. What is the binary value of 157?

155. What is V.42, V.22, V.42bis?

156. What is the binary value of hex BF?

157. What is a token?

158. Which service is feasible using standard ISDN?

159. According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for routing?

160. How many twisted pairs does a UTP Cat 5 cable have?

161. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 157?

162. Which cable is used for the RJ11 connectors?

163. Which of the following devices breaks up a Broadcast Domain by default?

164. What do you call a fiber optic cable in which the light signals follow multiple paths?

165. Recommended maximum length per TIA/EIA 568-5-A for a segment of category 5 cable?

166. Which layer of the OSI model provide support for browsing World Wide Web?

167. Which network topology can be used by Standard Ethernet and ThinNet Ethernet?

168. According to the OSI model, which layer organizes data bits into small data units called frames?

169. Purpose of twisting the pairs of cables together in an UTP (unshielded twisted pair) cable?

170. The skilful candidate's .... speech was delightful to listen to, but failed to explain how he would achieve the .... goals of peace and prosperity.

171. Which cable can be used to directly connect two PCs if only one of the PC support AUTO-MIX?

172. Which is the correct sequence of layers in OSI model (from lowest layer to highest)?

173. According to the OSI model, which layer defines network topologies (star, ring, bus etc)?

174. The hex BF value in decimal is 191. What is the value of hex BF in binary?

175. Which one is a valid disadvantage of Client Server networks?

176. Which access technique is used by Ethernet?

177. The administrator of XYZ company finds that one of the users in his network is trying to upload some unwanted material. He needs to prevent that user from uploading that immediately without effecting the work of other users who are accessing shared folders from the server. How should he disconnect that user without wasting time?

178. Multiple display is configured for User A but one user application failed to display on the secondary display. Troubleshoot.

179. How should the default Microsoft Error reporting feature in Windows XP be disabled?

180. Method to repair the following error - 'NTLDR is missing'?

181. Which command should be run to check the system file status?

182. How should the recovery console from a system be uninstalled?

183. Which protocol is used in class D?

184. Which additional features are available in NTFS as compared to FAT?

185. If a user gets 'Destination Host Unreachable' error, what is the root cause of message?

186. Which command is used to check the port status?

187. By which component can replication traffic be controlled and managed?

188. What does represent when dir command is run on c

189. What is the binary form of 150.210.99.5?

190. Which items can be recovered if user account is deleted in Windows XP?

191. Which command would be used to open registry?

192. Which command should be used for unattended installation on server1 if distribution share folder name is test located at server1?

193. How can the administrator access that folder?

194. What are the physical components of Active Directory?

195. How can you troubleshoot 'stop memory errors' and the drivers causing the errors?

196. Which protocol is used by Global catalog for searching objects in Domain?

197. Why is a user not able to access the sharing and security permissions tab on folder?

198. What does Author Mode mean in MMC (Microsoft Management Console)?

199. Which feature is used at the folder level, so that any temporary copy of an encrypted file is also encrypted?

200. What is the private IP range of Class-B?

201. How can the priority of the processes be set?

202. Where should the complete IRQ list in Windows XP be checked?

203. Which protocols are used in authenticating RRAS users?

204. Which of the following protocols are used to establish a remote Desktop Connection?

205. Which command is used to encrypt or decrypt files?

206. Which protocol/method is used to encrypt data over the network?

207. What does 'Principle of Least Privilege' mean?

208. When can password reset disk be used?

209. Which are the differences between NT DNS and 2000 DNS?

210. A user in a company left the job. The administrator wants to decrypt all data because of loss of owner private key. Who can recover the decrypted data?

211. A user in a network reports that someone in the network is sending him unwanted messages. How will the system administrator find out about the machine from where messages are generated?

212. Choose the 24 bit format of IP Address in Decimal form.

213. What does the term 'member server' mean?

214. Which tool is used for installing Win XP Professional onto multiple computers by using disk cloning?

215. Which three additional features, among the following, are available in Windows XP Professional editions compared to the home edition?

216. When the administrator tries to convert basic disk to dynamic disk from computer management, he finds no options for conversion. Identify the reason.

217. Internet Connection Firewall ( ICF) should be replaced with which of the following firewalls after installing Windows XP SP 2?

218. A basic disk has Windows 2000 professional installed on NTFS. When administrator converts it to dynamic disk and tries to install windows XP professional, installation fails. Identify the cause.

219. An error message is displayed 'Access is denied'. Troubleshoot this error message.

220. User A in a network required the permissions to change the system time in Windows XP as workgroup. How should he be granted the above permissions without affecting others?

221. What do administrative shared folder names always end with?

222. Why does the administrator fail to rename the drive letter of the system partition in Basic Disk?

223. How to improve the performance of Windows XP Professional in one's computer?

224. Which utilities are used to improve disk performance?

225. Which are true regarding dynamic disks?

226.

A server cluster was implemented and configured in Windows server 2003. Another Windows 2003 server has been configured as software router that connects an inside network with an outside network. After configuring cluster in Windows server 2003, remote clients complain that they were unable to ping to cluster's server address. How can the outside network be allowed to be able to use ping to access the cluster's address without exposing the network security?

227.

A Windows 2003 server based VPN server is implemented in a company. User faces problem when connecting to VPN server that they are unable to make connection to VPN server and that attempt is failed. Correct user name and password is entered but still connection refused by the VPN server. What can be the cause of such a problem?

228.

How will the administrator of a company secure the DNS zones in Windows server 2003?

229.

 Harry is a network administrator for a company. He has configured shadow copies feature in Windows 2003 server because network users often delete or modify the contents of company's sensitive data. A user complained that when he tries to restore an old version, new version gets deleted. How will Harry guide the user so that current version should not be replaced?

230.

A network consists of domain controllers running on 2000 and 2003. What will happen if one user is logged in two different machines and password is changed in one of them?

231. How can the administrator improve shadow copies performance?

232.

How many bits would be used as a network ID after subnetting in the class-B address of: 175.12.8.97 255.255.252.0?

233.

A VPN server was configured on Windows server 2003 for a company users so that they can connect and access resources over a secure channel. But when client tried to connect the VPN server, they are unable to establish Tunnel. What must be verified on clients that failed in establishing a Tunnel?

234.

A network consists of mixed client environment of UNIX and earlier-version microsoft clients. DNS service is installed and configured on Windows 2003. Which of the following resource records will permit UNIX clients to locate their WINS clients by extending their DNS name?

235. How many hosts can be configured in class-c private ip range?

236.

How can the administrator in windows server 2003 temporarily check the DNS performance and the packets sent and received by DNS server without affecting overall server performance and consuming disk space?

237.

 An administrator faced the problem with IPSec when implemented with NAT in Windows server 2003. What may have caused this problem?

238.

Remote users connecting to the Windows 2003 VPN server face problem of VPN profile taking much time to download thereby causing delay in login. What may be the cause of the problem?

239.

 Which command-line utility can be used to restore the default domain and domain controller group policy to their original state?

240. Which protocol is required to be enabled on router, when using NLB in either multicast or unicast mode?

241. Which of the following network troubleshooting command computes result based on the packets returned from each hop?

242. Which of the following are connection-oriented protocols?

243. Which service uses DNS for registering domain controllers in DNS domain namespace?

244. Which information structure does the OSI model follow?

245. Which of the following security tool should be used to secure communication between an Exchange 2003 front-end server and a back-end server?

246. Which of the following protocols are supported by IP Multicasting?

247.

Users in Windows 2003 server environment face problem in receiving mails from outside, but do not encounter a problem in sending. Which command based utility can be used to verify whether it is a DNS problem or not?

248.

Which of the following are types of fiber-optic media?

249.

The shadow copies feature is enabled on windows server 2003 for providing access to users to restore previous version files. When the users restore, they are unable to write anything in previous version files. Identify the problem.

250. Which applications are supported under TCP protocols?

251. Which of the following statements hold true regarding Multicasting and Unicasting routing?

252. Which is the default protocol to be used if any of the system in Windows XP or server 2003 does not support Kerberos v5?

253. Which of the followings certificate types can be used for auto-enrollment?

254. Which of the following multicast address is used by the ALLSPF routers to send its routing table information to other OSPF routers?

255. Which of the following statements are true regarding BootP and DHCP?

256.

Which of the following may be the possibilities, if the administrator discovers that cluster service fails to initialize quorum resources in Windows Server 2003?

257. Which tool should be used to compare the current security configuration with an existing template?

258.

Tom is the network administrator for a company. His network consists of front-end exchange server 2003 such as Outlook Web Access and back-end servers. He is worried that some malicious users might try to capture user's password information. Which of the following protocol provides secure communication?

259. Which FSMO role is responsible for synchronizing clock between domain controllers?

261. Which of the following protocols support mutual authentication in remote access server?

262.

Jo is the network administrator for a company. Her network consists of one Windows 2003 server and 100 Windows XP clients out of which 10 use portable computers from remote access. DHCP server is installed and configured to provide addresses to both of the clients. But due to shortage of address, some clients are unable to obtain address from DHCP server. Her company policies states to have a shorter lease time duration for remote access clients and default lease duration for local network. 

Which of the DHCP server options must she configure?

263.

John is working as a network engineer in an ISP. His company's growth required a large setup in different locations that need multiple networks and implementing various networks thereon. He has estimated the network size of 500 subnets. Which routing protocol is recommended for such a scenario?

264.

Kate is the network administrator for a company. She is planning to use 172.16.0.0 address scheme for her network that consists of 1000 clients. Which of the following subnet mask should she use so that addresses should not go waste?

265. Which of the following statements are true regarding shadow copies ?

266.

Which of the following is the feature of TCP/IP where large packets can be sent without waiting for positive acknowledgment?

267. Which of the following network devices generates more broadcast domains?

268. Which rule should be created in Windows server 2003 to prevent the virus or Trojan horse to be able to run in a network?

270. Which of the following statements are true regarding Certificate Manager(certmgr)?

271.

What is recommended for resolving name-to-address mapping in a computer that does not support NetBIOS name registration with windows server 2003 WINS Server?

272.

Which command line utility comes up with Windows Server 2003 Resource Kit to write down the new signature in new hard disk after a failed hard disk is replaced?

273. Which of the following protocols run in the layer 3 of TCP/IP model?

274. Which of the following are security recommendations for WINS in Windows server 2003 that is connected with external network?

275. What does the term "attenuation" mean in networking?

276. Which of the following statements hold true regarding PPTP-based VPN connections?

277.

Some of the VPN client computers are unable to connect with VPN server configured on windows server 2003. It is suspected that client computers are not updated with most recent hotfixes. Which command should be run on clients to check details of all Hotfixes status?

278. Administrator has installed and configured DHCP server in windows 2003 .He wants to check which processing mode the client sends their MAC address to the DHCP server.Which part of mode should be checked from Network Monitor?

279.

A DHCP server is installed on Windows server 2003 server with a scope from 192.168.0.1 to 192.168.0.200. A client is reserved with address of 192.168.0.150. Later on, a new DHCP server is configured with the same scope.The user whose address was reserved complains that he is unable to receive the same address from DHCP server. What should the network administrator do so that the reserved client gets the same address?

280.

Allen is the network administrator of his company. His network consists of Windows Server 2003. Network clients are using Windows XP and 200 professional computers for connecting the server. IPsec is deployed for a secure network. One of the managers uses VPN over dial-up from his home for connecting the company server. Later on, it is discovered that communication from dial-up is not secured. Identify the causes.

281.

A network consists of one DHCP server running on Windows server 2003 server and client on Windows 2000 and later versions.Which of the following packets will be sent by the DHCP clients for confirming conflict detection?  

282. Which command can be used to repopulate the Active Directory DNS entries?

283. Which of the following IP class ranges is used for multicasting?

284. Which of the following is equivalent to the ipconfig/flushdns?

285. Which DNS file points to the well known Top-Level Domains (Root Zones)?

286. How can the administrator forcibly release and renew the client entries on WINS server?

287. Which of the following commands can be used by the administrator in Windows Server 2003 to check the IPsec configurations and rules?

288. Which of the following protocol can be used over VPN with IPsec for secure communication in Windows Server 2003?

289.

RRAS server has been configured in Windows Server 2003. MS-CHAP v2 has been configured for encryption. The remote clients consists of Win 98 and XP systems. Win XP clients report no problem in connections. But Win 98 are unable to connect to server over dial-up. Identify the cause of the  

problem.

290. What should be done to resolve name resolution traffic for NAT environment without installing DNS server in NAT server in windows server 2003?

291. Which of the following routing protocols support authentication?

292. Which of the following component/protocol is required for relaying broadcast traffic of DHCP client for DHCP server across another network? Answers:

293. The order in which WINS P-node works is:

294. Which ns lookup switch will be used to check the MX resource record information from the command prompt?

295. Where can the Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol(PEAP) be used in Windows Server 2003 under Remote access?

296.

The network adminmistrator installed and configured one SUS server on Windows Server 2003 for updating 200 Windows XP clients. After some time, users are unable to connect to SUS server. What should he do to allow them to connect to SUS server for downloading latest updates?

297. Which of the following security templates can be used for restoring default settings in Windows Server 2003?

298.

John is the network administrator and his network consists of two Windows Server 2003 servers named server1 and server2. NAT is configured on server1 for securing the network and providing network access to clients. DHCP server is installed and configured on server2. A new subnet has been added to the network which will be assigned the addresses from server1 located on a different subnet. DHCP Relay agent has been configured on server1. Users complain that when they request the address from DHCP server, it fails and they get an error message that DHCP server is unreachable. John checked both the servers and found no error related to misconfiguration. Identify the problem.

299.

Harry is the network administrator of his company having Windows 2003 domain controller under the domain of his company. His network consists of 100 Windows 2000 professional and 200 Windows 98 clients. His company policy states that all systems be upgraded to Windows XP. How will he check that after upgradation, all systems are with the same security settings? 

300. Which of the following is the limitation of NAT over ICS?

301. Which two, among the following Operating Systems support NTLMv2?

302. Which of the following commands can be used to check the integrity of corrupted security database in Windows Server 2003?

303.

One SUS server is configured in Windows Server 2003 for updating Win XP clients. All clients are configured for Automatic Updates. All users are able to connect to and download updates from SUS server. But one automatic update client is unable to download update from SUS server. What should be done to update that client without wasting any time?

304.

The network administrator installed Windows Server 2003 and Enterprise Certificate on the same server, for his network clients running on Windows XP. He enabled the autoenrollment feature so that clients did not need to enter for requesting a new certificate. A lot of error messages were displayed in Event Viewer regarding failure of autoenrollment of the clients. Identify the error.

305.

Sammy the network administrator, installs a Windows Server 2003 as WINS server in his HQ. As his network expands, various branch offices are opened at different locations. HQ and Branches are connected through slow WAN links. Clients at branch generates a lot of lookup traffic for HQ. How should he minimize the lookup traffic between client and server?

306.

A network consists of one Windows Server 2003 running Enterprise Certificate Server. When a user requests for a new certificate, the request is processed. If, later on, the administrator checks the Event Viewer and views a lot of Certificate errors related to Time and Date and when he opened the Certificate manager he found the Certificate Server down. When he tried to restart, there was the same time and date problem. What does this mean and how can it be corrected?

307. Which of the following addresses fall under private range?

308.

The network consists of one Windows Server 2003, 500 Win XP and 1000 Windows 2000 client systems and all are running on workgroup. The administrator has created an IP sec policy on all client computers with Kerberos rule specified for authentication. Later on, users report that they can ping each other by the IP address but are unable to access resources on the server. What may be the possible cause of the problem?

309.

 The network administrator installed an Enterprise Certificate server on Windows Server 2003. His network consists of clients on Windows 2000 and XP. They are configured with roaming profiles and each day the seat of every user changes. The administrator installs and configures an Exchange Server on Windows Server 2003 for Internal communication. The next day users complain that they are unable to open encrypted messages. Identify the problem. 

310.

Which type of network should the WINS proxies be installed on?

311.

 Routing and remote access server is configured on Windows Server 2003. The network consists of many subnets and each uses different routing protocols. Which route would the router use if the routing table consists of entries from different routing protocols?

312. Which of the following are the benefits of static routes over dynamic routing?

313. Which of the following command can be used to display the local NETBIOS Table?

314.

The users of Harry's company connect to his network from their homes using dial-up connection to the RRAS server running on Windows Server 2003. Users have no problem with the connection. Later on, he enabled callback for home users. After callback is enabled, users report that they are unable to maintain the RRAS connections. How should he allow the users to be able to maintain this connection using Callback?

315.

Which of the following statements regarding routing protocols are correct?

316. An organization has been assigned the 172.16.0.0 subnet and uses 255.255.224.0 subnet mask. How many addresses are available for host addresses?

317.

Jane is the network administrator for her company. Her network consists of one Windows Server 2003 hosting her domain, and clients on Windows XP, Windows 2000 and Windows NT 4.0 service pack 3. Security Templates (hisec.inf) have been configured for securing network. Later on, Windows NT users complain that they are unable to login to server. But other users have no problem in logging and accessing resources. What should she do?

318. Which of the following utility should be used so that roaming users can read their digital and secured mails from any location?

319. Which packet is forwarded by DHCP Relay Agent to DHCP Server on behalf of DHCP Clients?

320.

An SUS server in Windows Server 2003 is installed. Clients running Win XP has been configured for automatic Updates. All client computers are the members of an OU named sales. GPO is applied to that OU for automatic client updation through SUS server. Which command line utility can be used to check if clients have been getting correct SUS configurations and GPO deployed?  

321. What does /29 represent?

322. Which of the following protocols are part of Internet Layer in TCP/IP Model?

323.

 The network administrator for company abc.com is running Active Directory in Windows Server 2003. Users in the network save their confidential data on a server named server1. He wants the communication between client and server to be secure and the data saved on server1 should be encrypted. What action should he take?

324. What is true regarding the character underscore( _ ) in DNS zone naming convention?

325. Which of the following protocols are considered as Mutual Authentication Protocols?

326. Which of the following log file is created on SUS client hard disk for keeping track of Windows Update?

327. A ____ application does not guarantee the delivery of any information or data.

328. The way a network is configured is called the network ____.

329. There are some network modeling tools that can ________ the existing network.

330. The devices that usually connect two or more lans are the switch, hub, and ____.

331. The highest-level dns servers are called ________.

332. Traditional switches operate at the ____ layer of the osi model.

333. There are 13 _____ name servers.

334. A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port.

335. A ____ is not a type of network device.

336. A ____ loop is best used when the specific number of iterations required is known.

337. Data is physically transmitted from one computer or terminal to another in the ________ layer.

338. Devices designed primarily to be used with a company network are called ____.

339. One type of mobile phone that is not commonly used is the ____.

340. The command ____ is used to find a specified string of characters in a file.

341. The internet backbone uses mostly ____ cabling for transmitting data between users.

342. The local loop commonly consists of either four or ____ wires.

343. The memory allocated for a float value is ____ bytes.

344. The most important network device is a ____.

345. The most popular configuration for a local area network is the ____ topology.

346. The way a network is designed to communicate is known as its ____.

347. The web browser?s job is to ____ the html code that it receives from the web server.

348. To connect to a lan, a computer requires ____.

349. Wireless network devices use ________ to communicate with each other.

350. Wireless networks usually use ____ signals to send data.

351. The application layer separates data into ____, or discrete amounts of data.

352. An airing of the television show friends on fox at 6:30 p.m. is an example of ______.

353. Jitter is a problem for ________.

354. Isp stands for ________.

355. ____ is an updated, digital version of x.25 that also relies on packet switching.

356. A mask has ________ bits.

357. A(n) ______ is a computer on a local network where e-mail is stored for local users.

358. A(n) ________ is a number that identifies a particular device.

359. The traditional network design approach does not work well for _________ networks.

360. When you are using the internet, you are ____ with other computers.

361. A(n) ________ is made up of two or more lans that are miles apart.

362. A neuron will fire if excitatory signals are stronger than _____ signals.

363. Voip sends packets using real-time transport protocol (rtp), which is a ________ protocol.

364. ____ are often considered first level support

365. Broadband is measured in _____ .

366. By far, the most popular expansion board nic today is one that uses a(n) ____ bus.

367. The ___________________ wiring standard uses the green pair of wires for pins 1 and 2.

368. The 10-gigabit fiber optic standard with the shortest segment length is ____.

369. The 10gbase-t standard is considered a breakthrough for transmitting 10 gbps over ____ medium.

370. The advantage of ________________ is they can be read over greater distances.

371. Today, ____ remains the lan protocol of preference for netware 6 and above.

372. Without ____, a bus network would suffer from signal bounce.

373. ____ defines a method for discovering a path mtu (pmtu) using icmp.

374. __________________ is the detection and signaling of device, link, or component faults.

375. The key point with ipv6 deployments is that they use a new ____ layer or routed protocol.

376. In classful addressing, the class b ipv4 address network id is located in the ____.

377. Individuals often join _____ organizations for monetary reasons.

378. What sets atm apart from ethernet is its ____ size.