MCQs > IT & Programming > Cyber Security MCQs > Basic Cyber Security MCQs

Basic Cyber Security MCQ

1. The __________ defines stiffer penalties for prosecution of terrorist crimes.

Answer

Correct Answer: USA Patriot Act

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2. Zero-day attacks might be stopped by ________ detection.

Answer

Correct Answer: Anomaly.

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3. Your organization service customer orders with a custom ordering system developed in-hose. You are responsible for recommending a cloud model to meet the following requirements: Control of security required for regulatory compliance Legacy application and database support Scalability to meet seasonal increases in demand Which cloud model is the best option for these requirements?

Answer

Correct Answer: Hybrid cloud

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4. Which action is most likely to simplify security staff training, improve integration between security components, and reduce risk to the business? (Choose the best answer.)Which action is most likely to simplify security staff training, improve integration between security components, and reduce risk to the business? (Choose the best answer.)

Answer

Correct Answer: adopting a "trust but verify" approach to securityadopting a "trust but verify" approach to security

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5. You are researching probable threats to your company’s internet-facing web applications. Which organization should you reference as an authoritative source for information on web-based attack vectors?You are researching probable threats to your company’s internet-facing web applications. Which organization should you reference as an authoritative source for information on web-based attack vectors?

Answer

Correct Answer: OWASP

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6. Site-to-site VPN provides access from one network address space (192.168.0.0/24) to another network address space _.Site-to-site VPN provides access from one network address space (192.168.0.0/24) to another network address space _.

Answer

Correct Answer: 192.168.0.1/24192.168.0.1/24

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7. You are responsible for forensic investigations in your organization.You have been tasked with investigating a compromised virtual application server. Becase a revenue generating application runs on the server, the server needs to be returned to service as quickly as possible. What is the next step you should take to best fulfill your responsibilities and meet the needs of the business?

Answer

Correct Answer: Take a snapshot of the compromised virtual server for your investigation.

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8. You are part of of an incident response team at your company. While sifting through log files collected by a SIEM, you discover some suspicious log entries that you want to investigate further. Which type of the following best refers to those recorded activities demanding additional scrutiny?

Answer

Correct Answer: Event

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9. Which type of attack targets vulnerabilities associated with translating MAC addresses into IP addresses in computer networking?

Answer

Correct Answer: ARP spoofing

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10. There are connection-oriented and connectionless protocols in networking. What do web browsers use to ensure the integrity of the data it sends and receives?

Answer

Correct Answer: TCP that is connection-oriented (not too much sure)

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11. Which option is a framework widely utilized by organizations in the development of security governance standards?

Answer

Correct Answer: Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies (COBIT) (not too much sure)

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12. You believe a recent service outage due to a denial-of-service attack from a disgruntled inside source. What is the name for the malicious act this employee has committed?

Answer

Correct Answer: Sabotage (not too much sure)

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13. Which phase of the incident response process happens immediately following identification?

Answer

Correct Answer: Reporting

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14. Which option describes a core principle of DevSecOps?

Answer

Correct Answer: Testing and release should be 100% automated

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15. Which information security principle states that organizations should defend systems against any particular attack using several independent methods?

Answer

Correct Answer: Defense-in-depth

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16. Which software development lifecycle approach is most compatible with DevSecOps?

Answer

Correct Answer: Agile

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17. Which option is a mechanism to ensure non-repudiation?

Answer

Correct Answer: Asymmetric-key encryption

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18. Executives in your organization exchange emails with external business partners when negotiating valuable business contracts. To ensure that these communications are legally defensible, the security team has recommended that a digital signature be added to these message. What are the primary goals of the digital signature in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.)

Answer

Correct Answer: Integrity and non-repudiation

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19. You have just conducted a port scan of a network. There is no well-known port active. How do you find a webserver running on a host, which uses a random port number?

Answer

Correct Answer: Turn on additional options in your network scanning tool to further investigate the details (type and version) of applications running on the rest of the active ports.

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20. When does static application security testing require access to source code?

Answer

Correct Answer: Always

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21. What is the difference between DevOps and DevSecOps?

Answer

Correct Answer: DevSecOps requires the inclusion of cybersecurity engineers in the CI/CD process of DevOps.

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22. Which compliance framework governs requirements for the U.S. healthcare industry?

Answer

Correct Answer: HIPAA

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23. The regulatory requirements for notifications of data breaches, particularly the European General Data Protection Regulations, have had what sort of effect on business?

Answer

Correct Answer: An increased business liability in the event of a data breach

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24. In 2014, 4,278 IP addresses of zombie computers were used to flood a business with over one million packets per minute for about one hour. What is this type of attack called?

Answer

Correct Answer: A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack

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25. You are implementing a cybersecurity program in your organization and want to use the "de facto standard" cybersecurity framework. Which option would you choose?

Answer

Correct Answer: The NIST Cypersecurity Framework

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26. According to NIST, what is the first action required to take advantage of the cybersecurity framework?

Answer

Correct Answer: Identify the key business outcomes.

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27. What are the essential characteristics of the reference monitor?

Answer

Correct Answer: It is tamper-proof, can always be invoked, and must be small enough to test.

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28. Which main reference coupled with the Cloud Security Alliance Guidance comprise the Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing?

Answer

Correct Answer: Cloud Controls Matrix

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29. Which organization has published the most comprehensive set of controls in its security guideline for the Internet of Things?

Answer

Correct Answer: IoT Security Foundation

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30. Which security control scheme do vendors often submit their products to for evaluation, to provide an independent view of product assurance?

Answer

Correct Answer: Common Criteria

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31. There are four possible treatments once an assessment has identified a risk. Which risk treatment implements controls to reduce risk?

Answer

Correct Answer: Risk mitigation

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32. You have implemented controls to mitigate the threats, vulnerabilities, and impact to your business. Which type of risk is left over?

Answer

Correct Answer: Residual risk

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33. Which organization, established by NIST in 1990, runs workshops to foster coordination in incident prevention, stimulate rapid reaction to incidents, and allow experts to share information?

Answer

Correct Answer: Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams

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34. NIST SP 800-53 is one of two important control frameworks used in cybersecurity. What is the other one?

Answer

Correct Answer: ISO 27002

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35. Your incident response team is unable to contain an incident because they lack authority to take action without management approval. Which critical step in the preparation phase did your team skip?

Answer

Correct Answer: Get preauthorized to take unilateral action and make or direct emergency changes.

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36. How often is the ISF Standard of Good Practice updated?

Answer

Correct Answer: Annual

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37. You are working in the security operations center analyzing traffic on your network. You detect what you believe to be a port scan. What does this mean?

Answer

Correct Answer: This could be a precursor to an attack.

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38. The ASD Top Four are application whitelisting, patching of applications, patching of operating systems, and limiting administrative privileges. What percent of breaches do these account for?

Answer

Correct Answer: 85 percent

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39. FUD is expensive and often causes high drama over low risk. Which computer chip exploits were reported by CNN as needing to be completely replaced, but were later fixed with firmware updates?

Answer

Correct Answer: Meltdown and spectre exploits

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40. To prevent an incident from overwhelming resources, _ is necessary.

Answer

Correct Answer: Early containment

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41. Where would you record risks that have been identified and their details, such as their ID and name, classification of information, and the risk owner?

Answer

Correct Answer: In the risk register

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42. The most notorious military-grade advanced persistent threat was deployed in 2010, and targeted centrifuges in Iran. What was this APT call?

Answer

Correct Answer: Stuxnet

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43. NIST issued a revision to SP 800-37 in December 2018. It provides a disciplined, structured, and flexible process for managing security and privacy risk. Which type of document is SP 800-37?

Answer

Correct Answer: A risk management framework

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44. You choose a cybersecurity framework for your financial organization that implements an effective and auditable set of governance and management processes for IT. Which framework are you choosing?

Answer

Correct Answer: NIST SP 800-37

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45. Your computer has been infected, and is sending out traffic to a targeted system upon receiving a command from a botmaster. What condition is your computer currently in?

Answer

Correct Answer: It has become a zombie.

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46. How does ransomware affect a victim's files?

Answer

Correct Answer: By encrypting them

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47. Which type of program uses Windows Hooks to capture keystrokes typed by the user, hides in the process list, and can compromise their system as well as their online access codes and password?

Answer

Correct Answer: Keylogger

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48. To implement encryption in transit, such as with the HTTPS protocol for secure web browsing, which type(s) of encryption is/are used?

Answer

Correct Answer: Both symmetric and asymmetric

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49. Which list correctly describes risk management techniques?

Answer

Correct Answer: Risk avoidance, risk transference, risk mitigation, and risk acceptance

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50. Which programming language is most susceptible to buffer overflow attacks?

Answer

Correct Answer: C

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51. You have just identified and mitigated an active malware attack on a user's computer, in which command and control was established. What is the next step in the process?

Answer

Correct Answer: Eradiction / Remediation

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52. Which encryption type uses a public and private key pair for encrypting and decrypting data?

Answer

Correct Answer: Asymmetric

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53. You have recovered a server that was compromised in a malware attack to its previous state. What is the final step in the incident response process?

Answer

Correct Answer: Eradication / Remediation

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54. Sharing account credentials violates the _ aspect of access control.

Answer

Correct Answer: Authorization

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55. You are responsible for managing security of your organization's public cloud infrastructure. You need to implement security to protect the data and applications running in a variety of IaaS and PaaS services, including a new Kubernetes cluster. What type of solution is best suited to this requirement?

Answer

Correct Answer: Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)

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56. The DLP project team is about to classify your organization's data. Whats is the primary purpose of classifying data?

Answer

Correct Answer: It quantifies the potential cost of a data breach.

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57. Which type of vulnerability cannot be discovered in the course of a typical vulnerability assessment?

Answer

Correct Answer: Zero-day vulnerability

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58. You have been tasked with recommending a solution to centrally manage mobile devices used throughout your organization. Which technology would best meet this need?

Answer

Correct Answer: Mobile Device Management (MDM)

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59. You are at a coffee shop and connect to a public wireless access point (WAP). What a type of cybersecurity attack are you most likely to experience?

Answer

Correct Answer: Man-in-the-middle attack

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60. You are a recent cybersecurity hire, and your first assignment is to present on the possible threats to your organization. Which of the following best describes the task?

Answer

Correct Answer: Risk management

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61. Which cyberattack aims to exhaust an application's resources, making the application unavailable to legitimate users?

Answer

Correct Answer: Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

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62. What is the process of challenging a user to prove their identity?

Answer

Correct Answer: Authentication

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63. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) use _ to create a secure connection between two networks.

Answer

Correct Answer: Encryption

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64. Which malware changes an operating system and conceals its tracks?

Answer

Correct Answer: Rootkit

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65. When implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) strategy, what is the first step in the process?

Answer

Correct Answer: Evaluate the features of available DLP products to determine which best meet your organizations's needs.

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66. Which option is an open-source solution to scanning a network for active hosts and open ports?

Answer

Correct Answer: Nmap

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67. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?

Answer

Correct Answer: Static analysis

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68. SQL injection inserts a code fragment that makes a database statement universally true, like _.

Answer

Correct Answer: SELECT * FROM users WHERE username =

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69. You are a security analyst, and you receive a text message alerting you of a possible attack. Which security control is the least likely to produce this type of alert?

Answer

Correct Answer: Packet sniffer

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70. Which attack exploits input validation vulnerabilities?

Answer

Correct Answer: Cross-site scripting (XSS)

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71. Which is not a principle of zero trust security?

Answer

Correct Answer: Trust but verify

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72. According to GDPR, a data _ is the person about whom data is being collected.

Answer

Correct Answer: Subject

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73. What act grants an authenticated party permission to perform an action or access a resource?

Answer

Correct Answer: Authorization

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74. An attacker has discovered that they can deduce a sensitive piece of confidential information by analyzing multiple pieces of less sensitive public data. What type of security issue exists?

Answer

Correct Answer: Inference

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75. Which type of application can intercept sensative information such as passwoprds on a network segment?

Answer

Correct Answer: Protocol analyzer

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76. What provides a common language for describing security incidents in a structures and repeatable manner?

Answer

Correct Answer: Common vulnerabilties and exposures

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77. Two competing online retailers process credit card transactions for customers in countries on every continent. One organization is based in the United States. The other is based in the Netherlands. With which regulation must both countries comply while ensuring the security of these transactions?

Answer

Correct Answer: Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

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78. How many keys would be necessary to accomodate 100 users in an asymmetric cryptography system?

Answer

Correct Answer: 200

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79. You need to disable the camera on corporate devices to prevent screen capture and recording of sensitive documents, meetings, and conversations. Which solution would be be suited to the task?

Answer

Correct Answer: Mobile Device Management (MDM)

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80. You organization is conducting a pilot deployment of a new e-commerce application being considered for purchase. You need to recommend a strategy to evaluate the security of the new software. Your organization does not have access to the application's source code. Which strategy should you choose?

Answer

Correct Answer: Dynamic application security testing

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81. Which is not a threat modeling methodology?

Answer

Correct Answer: TOGAF

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82. Your security team recommends adding a layer of defense against emerging persistent threats and zero-day exploits for all endpoints on your network. The solution should offer protection from external threats for network-connected devices, regardless of operating system. Which solution is best suited to meet this requirement?

Answer

Correct Answer: Next generation firewall (NGFW)

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83. What is the name for a short-term interruption in electrical power supply?

Answer

Correct Answer: Blackout

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84. You have configured audit settings in your organization's cloud services in the event of a security incident. What type of security control is an audit trail?

Answer

Correct Answer: Corrective control

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85. What is the term for the policies and technologies implemented to protect, limit, monitor, audit, and govern identities with access to sensitive data and resources?

Answer

Correct Answer: Identity and access management (IAM)

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86. Which is an example of privacy regulation at the state government level in the U.S.?

Answer

Correct Answer: CCPA

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87. _ validates the integrity of data files.

Answer

Correct Answer: Hashing

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88. You need to recommend a solution to automatically assess your cloud-hosted VMs against CIS benchmarks to identify deviations from security best practices. What type of solution should you recommend?

Answer

Correct Answer: Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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89. Which aspect of cybersecurity do Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks affect the most?

Answer

Correct Answer: Availability

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90. What is the difference between DRP and BCP

Answer

Correct Answer: DRP works to keep a business up and running despite a disaster. BCP works to restore the original business capabilities.

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91. You configure an encrypted USB drive for a user who needs to deliver a sensitive file at an in-person meeting. What type of encryption is typically used to encrypt the file?

Answer

Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption

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92. During a penetration test, you find a file containing hashed passwords for the system you are attempting to breach. Which type of attack is most likely to succeed in accessing the hashed passwords in a reasonable amount of time?

Answer

Correct Answer: Rainbow table attack

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93. Which option describes the best defense against collusion?

Answer

Correct Answer: Separation of duties and job rotation

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94. Which security control can best protect against shadow IT by identifying and preventing use of unsanctioned cloud apps and services?

Answer

Correct Answer: Cloud access security broker (CASB)

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95. In black box penetration testing, what information is provided to the tester about the target environment?

Answer

Correct Answer: None

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96. Which option describes testing that individual software developers can conduct on their own code?

Answer

Correct Answer: Unit testing

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97. Which option tests code while it is in operation?

Answer

Correct Answer: Dynamic analysis

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98. Packet sniffer is also called _.

Answer

Correct Answer: Protocol analyzer

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99. Which security control cannot produce an active response to a security event?

Answer

Correct Answer: Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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100. Your organization recently implemented a unified messaging solution and VoIP phones on every desktop. You are responsible for researching the vulnerabilities of the VoIP system. Which type of attack are VoIP phones most vulnerable to experiencing?

Answer

Correct Answer: Denial-of-service

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101. Which option removes the risk of multitenancy in cloud computing?

Answer

Correct Answer: Private cloud

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102. According to the shared responsibility model, which cloud computing model places the most responsibility on the cloud service provider (CSP)?

Answer

Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS)

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103. If a competitor reverse engineers a trade secret, then the competitor is ________.

Answer

Correct Answer: Allowed to use the trade secret but not the original trademark

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104. The foundation of integrity is your __________ system.

Answer

Correct Answer: Personal values

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105. The increased use of data mining can be attributed to the ________.

Answer

Correct Answer: Decentralization of data

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106. Proxy servers perform operations on ____-level data.

Answer

Correct Answer: Application

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107. Static packet filtering is sometimes used ________.

Answer

Correct Answer: Both as secondary filtering mechanism on an application proxy firewall and on border routers

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108. In ________ filtering, the firewall examines packets entering the network from the outside.

Answer

Correct Answer: Ingress

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109. After a programmer plans the logic of a program, the next step is ____.

Answer

Correct Answer: Code the program

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110. A security awareness program includes ________

Answer

Correct Answer: All of the above

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111. The us anticybersquatting act makes ____ cybersquatting illegal

Answer

Correct Answer: Domain name

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112. The u.s. anticybersquatting consumer protection act of 1999 makes ____ cybersquatting illegal.

Answer

Correct Answer: Domain name

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