1. What do diodes do?
2. What is the only p-type dopant used in silicon device manufacturing?
3. What mathematical formula most accurately predicts the Fermi level of a semiconductor?
4. Diodes and most photovoltaic cells contain which feature?
5. When silicon has been doped, what does this mean?
6. What does 'doping' do?
7. Can pure silicon alone be used to make a semiconductor?
8. What are the two basic types of impurities used in semiconductor doping?
9. At which frequency, capacitive reactance equals to inductive reactance?
10. What law predicts the future of integrated circuits?
11. What are the four terminals of an FET transistor?
12. What is the reason for reducing drain doping in a metal-oxide semiconductor device design?
13. What are the two bands in which an electron can reside?
14. What is the simplest semiconductor device?
15. What is a semiconductor?
16. What is a common scheme of electrical polarity in a MOSFET transistor?
17. Which of the following is a type of transistor?
18. Why are semiconductors important?
19. What are the components of a MOSFET?
20. The process of deliberately adding impurities to affect conductivity is called:
21. When infusing impurities into silicon to make a semiconductor, what is this process called?
22. What does BJT stand for?
23. What are semiconductors made out of primarily?
24. What does LED stand for?
25. What does the acronym IGBT stand for?
26. An electron is a _____
27. What is a III-V semiconductor?
28. What type of semiconductor do you get if you dope it with boron?
29. Which two formulas determine the carrier distribution of a semiconductor?
30. The process by which electrons and holes annihilate is called:
31. What three primary types of carrier action occur inside a semiconductor?
32. Which of the following is a voltage controlled device?
33. Where must doping be added within a semiconductor to alter their conductivity?
34. What is an exciton?
35. The wavelength of light emitted by an LED is determined by its:
36. The electron-volt is a unit of:
37. Which concept describes the chemical potential of a semiconductor?
38. What technique is commonly used to pattern semiconductors?
39. In ellipsometry, the azimuth is the angle between the _______ and the plane of incidence.
40. A degenerate semiconductor has which of the following characteristics?
41. Memristors are also known as _________.
42. On a circuit board what letter usually marks a transistor?
43. What devices are typically used to control volume in electronics?
44. What is the maximum theoretical efficiency for a single-junction silicon solar cell?
45. What are the four elements in CIGS?
46. What is the value of kT at room temperature?
47. Which type of element is most widely used for the manufacture of semiconductor devices?
48. What is the term for a semiconductor device manufacturing plant?
49. What is the bandgap of silicon?
50. Which semiconductor has a direct bandgap?
51. What happens to electrons to cause a semiconductor to gain electric conductivity?
52. What was the first transistor made of?
53. Which of these is a common method for producing single-crystal silicon?
54. A space on a wafer between die is called a(n):
55. In a plot of carrier concentration versus temperature, which of these is NOT a distinct region?
56. What is the conventional unit of volume in semiconductor engineering?
57. True or False? Pure Si has a low electrical resistivity at room temperature
58. Which statement is true about the Zener Effect?
59. What is the name of the regime in which transistors pass current?
60. What causes particles to diffuse from regions of higher concentration to regions of lower concentration?
61. Which particle generally carries the most momentum?
62. A P-type material is _____.
63. According to the Barkhausen criterion for oscillators .....
64. If the reverse bias on the gate of an FET is increased , the width of the conducting channel will _____.
65. An FET has the following parameters IDSS = 32mA , VGS ( off ) = -8V , VGS = -4.5V. What will be the drain current?
66. For good stabilization of the operating point in a voltage divider bias, the current I, flowing through potential dividers R1 and R2, should be equal to or greater than _____. (IB-base current)
67. If in a transistor IE = 10.5mA , IC = 10mA,the value of β will be _____.
68. A triac can pass a portion of _____.
69. An A.C supply of 230v is applied to a half wave rectifier circuit through a transformer of turn ratio 10:1. Its D.C voltage output will be _____.
70. A vacuum tube conducts current _____.
71. If a circuit of full-wave centre-tapped rectifier with capacitor filter employs a load RL = 100Ω, and C = 1050µF and the frequency is 50HZ , what would be the ripple factor?
72. A varactor diode can function as a variable capacitor with a________ forward bias.
73. Radio frequencies have their range above _____.
74. In the collector feedback biasing, β = 57 , RC = 1 kΩ , IB = 60µA and VCB = 4.5V. The value of the stability factor will be _____.
75. In the enhancement mode (MOSFET) , conductivity increases _____.
76. A three-stage amplifier has a first-stage voltage gain of 100, a second stage voltage gain of 200 and a third stage gain of 400. The total voltage gain in db will be _____.
77. At parallel resonance, a tuned circuit offers an impedance of _____.
78. An SCR is a solid state equivalent of a _____.
79. In the d.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier , the capacitors are regarded as _____.
80. The maximum efficiency of a full wave rectifier is _____.
81. If the collector supply voltage is 10v, the collector cut off voltage under D.C conditions will be _____.
82. If the input to an integrating circuit is a square wave, the output will be _____.
83. If in a transistor , Ic = 9.5mA , Ie = 10mA , the value of α will be _____.
84. In an R-C phase shift oscillator, an R-C network is designed to introduce a phase shift of _____ .
85. If the input to a differentiating circuit is a square wave, the output will be _____.
86. For faithful amplification, VBE must not fall below _____.
87. For an R-C phase shift oscillator , the frequency of oscillation will be given as _____.
88. A reversed biased P-N junction has a resistance of the order of _____.
89. The impedance of a parallel tuned circuit at resonance is _____.
90. A transistor amplifier has 4v,2mA as the operating point. For faithful amplification, the collector current due to signal alone should not exceed _____.
91. A D.C milliammeter connected to a half-wave rectifier supplying a maximum current of 10mA will read _____.
92. An SCR combines the features of_____.
93. Hartley oscillator is _____.
94. If in a transistor VCB= 4V , VBE = 0.7V, the VCE will be equal to _____.
95. The input and output voltages of a CE transistor amplifier are _____.
96. An FET has ________ temperature co-efficient of resistance.
97. An :FET is a _____.
98. The complementary MOS(CMOS) uses _____.
99. A 3-ohm load is coupled to a transistor amplifier through a step-down transformer. If the D.C resistance of the primary winding is 300Ω and the output resistance of the amplifier is 3KΩ, what should be the turn ratio for the transfer of maximum power?
100. The ideal value of the stability factor is _____.
101. If the A.C input to a half-wave rectifier has an R.M.S valve of 400/√2 v, the peak inverse voltage will be _____.
102. The stability factor of a biasing circuit is 10. What does it mean?
103. The slope of the D.C load line of a transistor circuit having a collector load Rc is _____.
104. Tuning is generally accomplished by varying _____.
105. Which condition must a transistor fulfill to act as an amplifier?
106. The maximum value of AC voltage appearing across the secondary of a transformer in a bridge circuit using a vacuum tube is 400 v. The peak inverse voltage of the diode should be _____.
107. Which device has the highest input impedance?
108. The range of LC oscillators is _____.
109. Two identical germanium diodes are connected in series opposition. A 10V battery is impressed upon this series arrangement. What will be the voltage across each diode room temperature if the Zener breakdown voltage of each diode is 9.8V?
110. Which one of the following is Shockley's equation?
111. Which multivibrator is a square wave oscillator?
112. The overall gain of a multistage amplifier is 140. When negative feedback is applied, the gain is reduced to 17.5. The fraction of the output that is feedback to the input will be _____.
113. Which configuration of a transistor is preferred as an amplifier?
114. The most commonly used semiconductor in solid state devices is _____.
115. Tuned amplifiers are generally operated as
116. Which one of the following is a non-feedback type oscillator?
117. The output characteristics of an FET closely resemble the plate characteristics of a________ valve.
118. The Q-factor of a parallel tuned circuit is given by _____.
119. The required gain of an amplifier for sustained oscillation in the wein bridge oscillator is _____.
120. When a transistor has to act as a switch, it must operate in _____.
121. The V-I characteristics of a triac in the first and third quadrants are essentially identical to those of _______ in the first quadrant
122. Which parameter is a measure of a vacuum tube's amplification capability?
123. The output frequency of a half-wave rectifier is _____.
124. Which coupling does the final stage of a multistage amplifier use?
125. We have to match a 16-ohm speaker to an amplifier so that the effective load resistance is 10 KΩ. What should be the transformer turn ratio?
126. The resonant circuit has ___________ impedance at the resonant frequency.
127. The relationship among bandwidth, resonant frequency and Q of a tuned circuit is _____.
128. Why is the control grid of a tube always held at negative potential W.R.T cathode.?
129. What would be the gain of a negative feedback amplifier with an internal gain A=100 and a feedback factor m=0.9?
130. Tuned amplifiers are used for the amplification of _____.
131. Which one is used to provide current in vacuum tubes?
132. Vacuum tubes are _____.
133. When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally, the Vce is _____.