Senior Design Project MCQ
1. What is a fishbone diagram used for?
Answer
Correct Answer:
To identify and categorize the possible causes of an effect.
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2. What is a finish-to-finish relationship?
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Correct Answer:
A successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.
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3. In a finish-to-finish relationship, what must happen before a successor activity can finish?
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Correct Answer:
A predecessor activity has finished.
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4. What does a finish-to-start relationship mean?
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Correct Answer:
A successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.
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5. In a finish-to-start relationship, what must happen before the successor activity can start?
Answer
Correct Answer:
The predecessor activity has finished.
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6. What does a feasibility study assess?
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Correct Answer:
The likelihood of a project being completed effectively, considering resources and requirements.
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7. What is the main purpose of using fast tracking in project management?
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Correct Answer:
To shorten the duration of the critical path
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8. Which of the following is NOT a focus of XPM?
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Correct Answer:
Rigid scheduling
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9. What does XPM stand for?
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Correct Answer:
Extreme project management
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10. What is Agile software development?
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Correct Answer:
A Software development methodology that emphasizes responsiveness to customer demands
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11. What is the main feature of extreme programming?
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Correct Answer:
High-volume communication with customers
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12. What is an external dependency?
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Correct Answer:
An outside relationship that affects the completion of a project activity.
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13. What is an example of an external dependency?
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Correct Answer:
A project activity that requires the use of a machine that is not owned by the company.
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14. What is expert judgment?
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Correct Answer:
The practice of using expert opinion to guide decision making.
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15. Who is responsible for the success of the project?
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Correct Answer:
Executive sponsor
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16. What is the role of an executive sponsor?
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Correct Answer:
To provide high-level direction to project managers and be accountable to the board for project success.
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17. Which phase comes after the Execution phase?
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Correct Answer:
None, the Execution phase is the last phase in the project management life cycle.
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18. Which of the following is true about the execution phase?
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Correct Answer:
Execution is the longest and most expensive phase in the project management life cycle.
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19. What does the adjective "event-driven" describe?
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Correct Answer:
An action that is prompted by the occurrence of an event
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20. What is event chain methodology used for?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Identify risk events' impact on a schedule
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21. What is the full name of the schedule network analysis method?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Event chain methodology
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22. What is an event chain diagram?
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Correct Answer:
A visual representation of a schedule network based on event chain methodology.
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23. What is estimation?
Answer
Correct Answer:
The use of estimating techniques to reach approximations of unknown values
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24. What is a metaphor for the increased accuracy in estimation made possible as a project progresses?
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Correct Answer:
Estimating funnel
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25. What does ETC stand for?
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Correct Answer:
Estimate to complete
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26. What does EAC stand for?
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Correct Answer:
Estimate at completion
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27. What is the definition of enterprise environmental factors?
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Correct Answer:
Internal and external factors that can impact projects.
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28. What does EEF stand for?
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Correct Answer:
Enterprise Environmental Factors
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29. What does upgrade mean in the context of EMU project classifications?
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Correct Answer:
Upgrade projects create a new version of the software, called a release.
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30. What is the purpose of an upgrade project?
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Correct Answer:
To create a new version of the software
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31. Who is an end user?
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Correct Answer:
The person or persons who will eventually use the product of a project.
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32. What is effort management?
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Correct Answer:
The most efficient allocation of time and resources to project activities.
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33. What does an effort estimate usually include?
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Correct Answer:
Approximation of the amount of staff-hours needed to complete an activity.
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34. What is the unit of measure for effort?
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Correct Answer:
Person-hours
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35. What is effort?
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Correct Answer:
The amount of labor needed to complete a task.
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36. What does earned value management measure?
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Correct Answer:
Project performance and progress with regard to scope, time, and costs
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37. What is earned value management?
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Correct Answer:
A method of measuring project performance and progress with regard to scope, time, and costs.
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38. What is the earned value?
Answer
Correct Answer:
A concept used to gauge project schedule and cost performance
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39. What is the earned value concept used for?
Answer
Correct Answer:
To gauge project schedule and cost performance
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40. What method of measuring schedule performance does earned schedule improve upon?
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Correct Answer:
Traditional earned value management
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41. What is the main advantage of using earned schedule over earned value management?
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Correct Answer:
It more accurately indicates schedule performance by the end of a project.
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42. What is the earliest time by which a scheduled project activity can logically start?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Early start date
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43. What is an early finish date?
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Correct Answer:
The earliest time by which a scheduled project activity can logically finish.
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44. Which of the following is not an agile product development methodology?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Dynamic systems development method
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45. What is the dynamic systems development method?
Answer
Correct Answer:
One of the agile product development methodologies
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46. What is the other name for duration compression?
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47. What is the main purpose of duration compression techniques?
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Correct Answer:
To shorten a project's duration without reducing its scope
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48. What is the definition of duration?
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Correct Answer:
The amount of time taken to complete an activity or task from start to finish
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49. What is the purpose of a dummy activity?
Answer
Correct Answer:
To show logical relationships between activities
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50. Dummy activities are used to show what?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Logical relationships between activities
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51. What is the main purpose of using drawdowns?
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Correct Answer:
To exercise control on the release of project funds
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52. What is the do nothing option?
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Correct Answer:
An element of a project business case that states the consequences, if any, of not undertaking the project.
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53. What is the preferred way to sequence activities when there is no logical limitation on how they must be ordered?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Discretionary dependency
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54. What is discrete effort?
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Correct Answer:
Project work directly associated with components of a work breakdown structure.
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55. What is the other name for Discrete effort?
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Correct Answer:
Project work
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56. What is the definition of dependency?
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Correct Answer:
A logical relationship between project activities in a network diagram that determines when a dependent activity may begin.
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57. What determines when a dependent activity may begin?
Answer
Correct Answer:
A logical relationship between project activities in a network diagram.
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58. What is the Delphi technique?
Answer
Correct Answer:
An estimation method based on expert consensus.
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59. What is a deliverable?
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Correct Answer:
A final product or product component that must be provided to a client or stakeholder according to contractual stipulations.
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60. What does "deflection" mean?
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Correct Answer:
The transferring of risk to another party, generally via a contract.
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61. What is the range of a definitive estimate?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Ten-percent
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62. Which of the following is not a component of the Define phase in the portfolio life cycle?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Implementation
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63. What is defect repair?
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Correct Answer:
An action taken to remedy a product that is nonfunctional or does not match expectations or requirements.
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64. What is decomposition?
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Correct Answer:
The hierarchical breaking down of project deliverables into smaller components that are easier to plan and manage.
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65. What is the process of breaking down project deliverables into smaller components called?
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Correct Answer:
Decomposition
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66. What is the main purpose of decision tree analysis?
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Correct Answer:
To examine the implications of multiple decision-making or situational outcomes.
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67. What is a data date?
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Correct Answer:
A point at which a project's status is measured and documented.
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68. What is CISD?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Critical incident stress debriefing
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69. What is critical incident stress debriefing?
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Correct Answer:
A psycho-educational exercise for small groups who have experienced a traumatic event.
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70. What does CCPM stand for?
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Correct Answer:
Critical chain project management
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71. Why is crashing used as a schedule compression technique?
Answer
Correct Answer:
To speed up project work by increasing the rate at which critical path activities are completed
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72. What is the cost associated with ensuring project quality?
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Correct Answer:
Cost of quality
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73. What is the purpose of a cost management plan?
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Correct Answer:
To detail how project costs will be planned, funded, and controlled
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74. What is cost engineering?
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Correct Answer:
The application of scientific and engineering principles to several aspects of cost management.
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75. What is the cost baseline?
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Correct Answer:
The sum of work package estimates, contingency reserve, and other associated costs by which project performance is assessed.
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76. What is the difference between a corrective action and a preventive action?
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Correct Answer:
Corrective actions are reactive, while preventive actions are proactive.
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77. Control charts are used to show whether a process meets results expectations. True or False?
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78. What does a Control Chart do?
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Correct Answer:
Compares process results with historical averages and process control limits.
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79. What is contract closeout?
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Correct Answer:
The process of determining whether the terms of a contract were completed successfully and of settling any remaining terms.
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80. What is the process of contract closeout?
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Correct Answer:
Determining whether the terms of the contract were completed successfully and settling any remaining terms.
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81. What is the main purpose of contract administration?
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Correct Answer:
To manage the relationship between contracting parties
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82. What is contract administration?
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Correct Answer:
The process by which a team manages a relationship with a contracting party.
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83. What is a contingency plan?
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Correct Answer:
An alternative or additional course of action planned in anticipation of the occurrence of specific risks.
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84. What is a nonrenewable resource?
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Correct Answer:
A resource that cannot be used once consumed
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85. What is the process by which a team builds infrastructure called?
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Correct Answer:
Construction
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86. Who manages construction projects?
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Correct Answer:
Project managers
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87. What is constructability?
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Correct Answer:
A concept used in complex hard projects to assess and examine the entire construction process before beginning construction.
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88. What does the term "constraint" mean?
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Correct Answer:
A limitation on a project
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89. What is the definition of consensus?
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Correct Answer:
A decision agreed upon by all members of a group.
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90. What does Configuration management ensure?
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Correct Answer:
Necessarily specifications and stipulations are met
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91. What does configuration involve?
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Correct Answer:
Shaping a product's functions and characteristics to make it suitable for customer use.
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92. What is concurrent engineering?
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Correct Answer:
A product development approach where design and development are carried out at the same time.
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93. What does conceptual project planning involve?
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Correct Answer:
Developing the documentation from which a project’s organization and control system will originate.
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94. Which of the following is not a part of the concept phase?
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Correct Answer:
Examine general feasibility of the project
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95. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the project management life cycle?
Answer
Correct Answer:
Implementation
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96. What does 'competence' mean?
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Correct Answer:
The ability and knowledge required to perform the tasks associated with a specific role.
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97. What is the main purpose of a community of practice?
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Correct Answer:
To share and develop knowledge in an area of interest
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98. Who shares and develops knowledge in a community of practice?
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Correct Answer:
Groups of people who share an area of interest
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99. What is a communications log used for?
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Correct Answer:
To track all project-related communications.
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100. What is the purpose of a communications log?
Answer
Correct Answer:
To track all project-related communications
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Industrial Engineering MCQs | Topic-wise