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Crime & Justice
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Criminal Courts (U.S.) Skill Assessment
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Quiz # 11
Criminal Courts (U.S.) Quiz # 11
Instructions
Quiz:
Criminal Courts (U.S.) Quiz # 11
Subject:
Types Of Law
Total Questions:
510 MCQs
Time:
510 Minutes
Note
Do not refresh the page while taking the test.
Results along with correct answers will be shown at the end of the test.
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Criminal Courts (U.S.) Quiz # 11
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Question
1
of 510
00:00
Is mens rea “Guilty mind.” Liability generally does not attach based on action alone; there also must exist some sort of guilty mind?
True
False
_____ is the most common test for insanity and is realized if a defendant did not know either what he or she was doing or know that it was wrong.
Have no effect on
None of these
Increase
M’naghten rule
_____ is defined as in relation to modern criminal law, it sets forth four levels of intent: purposeful, knowing, reckless, and negligent.
All of these
Model penal code
Combined
Mixed
_____ is known as the cause, or reason why an act is committed.
Mixed
Combined
Motive
All of these
Is murder is a killing that occurs (1) purposefully, (2) knowingly, or (3) recklessly under circumstances exhibiting extreme indifference to human life?
True
False
_____ is a failure to act with the appropriate level of care.
Negligence
Jury
All of these
Witness
_____ is defined as divorce granted without assigning fault for the breakup of the marriage.
No-fault divorce
All of these
Cross-examination
Hearsay
_____ is known as A doctrine that states that a property owner may not use his or her property in such a way that it has an unreasonable, adverse affect on other property owners.
Whether to accept a plea agreement
Castle doctrine
All of these
Nuisance doctrine
Is ordinary care the level of care required to avoid committing a negligent act and being civilly liable in tort?
True
False
_____ is a criminal law violates the overbreadth doctrine when it fails to narrowly define the specific behavior to be restricted.
Overbreadth doctrine
Private
None of these
Fixed-price
_____ is defined as person alleging that the defendant has harmed him or her in some way and who seeks damages for the injury.
Popular election
Plaintiff
None of these
Executive appointment
_____ is known as a test for whether the act was caused by the defendant’s mental illness. Also referred to as the Durham rule.
Testimonial
Product test
None of these
Non-testimonial
Is proof beyond a reasonable doubt this standard is used in criminal trials and means that the facts asserted are highly probable?
True
False
_____ is this standard is used in civil trials and means that the facts asserted are more probably true than false. A relatively easy burden to meet.
Proof by a preponderance of the evidence
Collaboration
All of these
Rehabilitation
_____ is defined as the legal principle that the criminal act is the one that is the most significant and it seems fair to hold the actor accountable for his or her actions.
Reliable
Bill of rights
All of these
Proximate cause
_____ is known as monetary awards beyond compensation that are designed to punish the defendant and to deter others.
Punitive damages
Dual-sovereignty doctrine
Bills of attainder
All of these
Is rape carnal knowledge of a person against his or her will?
False
True
_____ is land and items permanently attached to the land.
Real property
Malice aforethought
Whether to plead guilty
None of these
_____ is defined as civil law analog of the prohibition against double jeopardy. Once a case has been through all possible appeals, it is decided forever.
All of these
Hearsay
Res judicata
No-fault divorce
_____ is known as a doctrine stating that a person must retreat rather than use deadly force in a situation if doing so is possible without endangering the person’s life.
Trial sufficiency policy
Legal sufficiency policy
Retreat doctrine
All of these
Is self-defense defense raised when the defendant has used force to repel an imminent, unprovoked attack that would have caused him or her serious injury. Self-defense may also apply to the defense of others or of property?
True
False
_____ is involves the intent to induce another to commit a crime.
Harm
Real evidence
All of these
Solicitation
_____ is defined as the doctrine that prohibits citizens from suing their government.
Coordinated
Sovereign immunity
Ad hoc
None of these
_____ is known as imposes accountability without proof of criminal intent in situations where society deems it fair to do so, such as violations of drug and alcohol sales laws.
All of these
Victim
Strict liability
Harm
Is substantial capacity test when the defendant lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his or her conduct or know how to control it?
True
False
_____ is the law of crimes. It is defined by statute, and it prescribes (what we should do) and proscribes (what we should not do) various types of conduct. It is that code of conduct that all in a society are expected to follow, such as prohibitions on murder, assault, and robbery.
Durham rule
Attorney general
Substantive law
None of these
_____ is defined as when multiple people each own an equal share of a piece of real property.
State supreme courts
Conspiracy
All of these
Tenancy in common
_____ is known as the body of civil law associated with harm caused to plaintiffs by the action or inaction of defendants.
Tort law
Sixth
None of these
First
Is transferred intent applies to situations where a person intended to harm A but in error harmed B. To prevent the defendant from escaping liability by claiming that he or she did not intend to hurt B and therefore the element of intent is missing, courts developed the concept of transferred intent. The concept means that the intent to harm a person who is not actually harmed is transferred to the person who is harmed?
False
True
_____ is a code of law concerning contracts designed to standardize trade and contract practices among merchants and businesses.
Castle doctrine
None of these
Uniform commercial code
Nuisance doctrine
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Criminal Courts (U.S.) Skill Assessment
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